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  5. "Ninguno de estos coches me p…

"Ninguno de estos coches me pertenece."

Translation:None of these cars belong to me.

January 31, 2013



It' time for a correction to be made. What's keeping you? " None [ not one] of these cars IS mine. Likewise, "None of these cars belong to me." The subject is singular, as should the verb be, i.e. BELONGS


Singular now, singular verb. Plural noun, plural verb. Wake up, Duolingo!


"Ninguno de estos coches me pertenece." "Pertenece" is singular. The DUOLINGO translation "belong" is plural. Which is it? Is it singular in Spanish and plural in English?


Yes Pertenece is singular third person. In the translation we would say the cars (plural) belong to, but if car were singular, we would say the car belongs to....


Exactly! Wanted to say the same thing


" none of these cars is mine" is the correct answer. Whatever language you speak, the verb must agree with the subject, the subject being " none of these cars". Therefore the verb "is" is the correct one.


either 'is' or 'are' works in this sentence. Which one you use actually changes the meaning of the sentence a little bit. If you use "none of these cars IS mine" it implies that the person speaking is looking for their car or something. In that case of "none of these cars ARE mine" it implies a different situation. Maybe a person who has a bunch of really nice cars in their garage but the cars belong to someone else.


02/4/14 Agree. Either one is correct, although I would lean towards are, looking at the entire phrase as the subject, rather than just the word none. (And yes, I know that if you diagram the sentence none is the subject, but diagramming is unnatural, that's why it is so hard to teach.)


The subject is "none" i.e. not one... Therefore the verb should be in singular, too


No, even in this situation none (no one) of these cars is mine, although most of us, including me, would speak incorrectly. The speaker should say, "These cars are not mine." if he or she is saying the bunch do not belong to him or her.


"None of these cars BELONGS to me." Which bit don't you get?


Por qué usamos "estos" en lugar de "estes"?


Creo que "estos" es la forma plurales de "este." "Esto -> estos" y tambien "este -> estos." No estoy seguro porque soy anglofono.


Shouldn't the verb be "pertenecen" instead?


Ninguno is singular = not one = belongs = singular.


I said "I don't own any of these cars" - same thing right?


No. They aren't exactly the same in English, either. None of these cars belong to me could be referencing a rental or lease car, which you don't own. I checked translation on Spanishdict (which is pretty good) and it used No tengo ninguno de estes coches. You could probably also use poseer as the verb for your sentence. Plus, the way this verb works in English is similar to the way gustar works in Spanish - the item in question is the subject, the person is the indirect object.


Dear passengers, do not forget your personal belongings when leaving the plane!


Oh boy they have gotten much less tolerant of typos and spelling errors since the redesign. Although more content I miss the word list in lessons completes. Anyone else?Pass it along


Is "neither of these cars belong to me" correct?


Neither implies there are two so I do not think Neither would work since there could be more than two cars.


Thanks, I think you're right... I've used—and have heard used—"neither" in this situation before, but I think it is a colloquial thing.


What about "None of these cars pertain to me?"...it's so simple, and it makes sense. I double checked different translators to see if it may have a slightly different meaning, but they all say "pertain" has the same meaning as "pertenecer"


I can just about live wit your interpretation, Kirby, but you appear to miss the point completely. The problem is not one of interpretation, but one of grammar. The subject of the sentence is, "None of these cars" and the verb is "to pertain". The verb must agree with the subject and the subject is singular. Therefore the sentence should read, "None [as in not one] of these cars pertains to me." In another context, would you say, "It pertain to me." I hope not.


Yes, I know, I made a grammatical error there but that wasn't my point at all. I was asking whether or not the translation would make sense seeing as the definitions are the same in both languages. My problem was that DL counted it as incorrect when I said "pertains".


Ughhh. I used "vehicles" instead of "cars." Duolingo, Y U NO accepted that?


Please help me,is it belongs to me or belong to me


It is sometimes held that none can only take a singular verb, never a plural verb: none of them is coming tonight rather than none of them are coming tonight. There is little justification, historical or grammatical, for this view. None is descended from Old English nān meaning ‘not one’ and has been used for around a thousand years with both a singular and a plural verb, depending on the context and the emphasis needed. -Oxford Dictionary; https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/none


"belong" is missing an 's' in the translation.


Is, is singular as in a/one car. If it is cars it would be are. That car is mine. Those or these cars are mine


'When the police finds drugs in a car inside your garage'


Help!!! I've been using Duolingo for several years and the sound has always been a bit "iffy", but following the latest upgrade, it's become almost unintelligible after the first few minutes of a lesson. Lessons using audio prompts have become impossible. This does not happen with any other website of any type. Can anyone in Duolingo Land tell me how to fix the problem?


Even when i type it word for word like it says it is still wrong. There is no correct response therefore the exercise can not be completed.

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