"We eat his rice."

Translation:Nous mangeons son riz.

January 31, 2013

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I'm so confused when to use and not use "le" or "du". When I don't use any article, I'm told I'm supposed to and my answer is wrong. When I do use an article, I'm not supposed to and I'm wrong. So frustrating


In this program it seems to go like this:

I eat rice -> Je mange du riz (Also equivalent to I eat (some) rice)

I eat the rice -> Je mange le riz

But in this question, it's his rice that we're eating meaning the rice belongs to someone. But whether we use 'son', 'sa' or 'ses' depends on the gender of the rice, and as rice in french is 'le' riz and NOT 'la' riz, we use 'son'.

I eat his rice -> Je mange son riz

I eat her rice -> Je mange son riz (the same as it is 'riz' that we look at the gender of)

I hope that helps :P


Wouldn't "ses riz" be correct, because we probably don't eat only 1 piece of rice.


I guess that is same in English, when you say rice you don't mean 1 piece of rice.


Can somebody explain "ses, son, sa" to me I don't understand when I should use what.


you use 'son' with masculine nouns, 'sa' with feminine nouns and 'ses' with plural nouns. Unlike in English where 'his' and 'her' refer to the gender of the person, in French 'son' 'sa' and 'ses' refer only to grammatical gender, not the gender of the person.


This helps a lot, thanks!


How do you know if it was his rice and not her rice?


You wouldn't, because the person who invented French didn't think of that apparently.


Only by context. The possesive doesn't relate to the gender of the owner as it does in English.


I think the gender of the possession is what determines it. So since the rice is masculine, you'd use son.


It doesnt matter. You need to look at the gender of the noun, in this case, rice


I, too, do not understand when to use "du" and when I shouldn't use "du." It seems whatever choice I make is wrong. HELP!


In Spanish, the pronoun in front of the verb isn't necessary. Is this not true in French?


The only time I can think of that you would leave out the pronoun in French would be when using command form


i dont understand the difference between mangent and mangeon. somone help


Why is it MangEons? I'm being taught Mangons


The 'e' after 'g' helps with the correct pronunciation. Mangons will be pronounced with 'g' sound as in 'mango' Whereas Mangeons is to be pronounced with the 'z' sound as in 'seizure'


ç'est trop méchant!!


Why not ses? You don't eat one rice.

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