"הילד אוכל את הממתק שלו."
Translation:The child is eating his candy.
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Good observation! I don't know but that will certainly make it easier for me to remember the word.
I know sweet because of the Eliad song, מתוק כשמרלי, Sweet as Marley "Matok cashmarley", it has a lot of words used in the first grouping/ section... מתוק , דודו, אריה,עידן, ....
The 'his' in 'his candy' is not referring to the child, is it? We'll still have to learn reflexive pronouns, right?
It used to tell me that yeled was boy, showing me that child was incorrect, now I put boy and it says it is wrong
Both should be ok, but what was the whole sentence you used? Because It should be "THE boy" (or child or kid).
@yoganoga: I'm learning modern Hebrew with duolingo...but because there is no answer and I've already learned Biblical Hebrew , I try to give you an answer.
In Biblical Hebrew it could mean both: reflexive and non-reflexive...you just don't know it and it's up to the translator...
Thank you! I kind of figured it out, I was just confused because we use a lot of reflexive pronouns and it's usually a lot more obvious who you're referring to, idk...
My Hebrew is far from perfect but a little more advanced than this stage of the Duolingo course, so I'll try to help. As far as I know the pronouns in Hebrew are ambiguous, can be either reflexive or non-reflexive. If you want to be very clear you could use something like 'himself' .
Because the context of "his" clues you in that yeled means boy, not child, in this context. You're supposed to infer the correct use of boy/child from the possessive later in the sentence.
As far as I know, originally both words described the same thing. These days ממתק describes all kind of sweets, while סוכריה describes hard candy, like llolipops or fruit shaped candy (without gelatin) etc.
as in "trick or treat"? ummm.. I guess so, though I must admit that as a hebrew native I don't really get this word for whenever I came across this word, the intention was treatment so... :S
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I could only hear one "m" sound in the audio so is it pronounced hamtak rather than ha-mamtak after the definite article?
The biys eats his candy is perfectly valid here. (We know it's a boy vecause of שלו .)
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I had a simular question to some listed but I would like to know if the "הממתק שלו" would be translated as the 'his' of "הילד", the scentence's noun, or could it be considered to be another 'his'? I.e. The boy is eating his candy (refering to another boy's candy - not his own candy).
In this sentence it can be both reflexive and non-reflexive. You could make it unambiguously by saying הַמַּמְתַּקִּים שֶׁל עַצְמוֹ his own candies