"You are lying down already."

Translation:Te már fekszel.

July 8, 2016

This discussion is locked.


Why is "már lefekszel" wrong, does it have another meaning?


While it could refer to the act of lying down, it would primarily be understood as "you are already going to bed". (Or it could also mean having a sexual intercourse, if you add with whom you're doing it.)


I disagree, "(te) már lefekszel" is a correct translation, it does not necessarily mean that you're going to bed. It could also mean e.g. that we are on a hiking tour and you're getting tired after an hour and you lie down under the trees. Or you can lie down in a boxing ring, see "oda az álmod, ha lefekszel" ('your dream is over if you lie down' - Ilyen a boksz by LGT).


I also noted that it can refer to the act of lying down as well.

But yes, it should probably be accepted.


"Már fekszel le."? Splitting out the preverb to give emphasis on already. Mr. D didn't like it.


I thought it was "Te már fekszelsz". Wouldn't the verb form match the pronoun?


The verb is fekszik (third person singular). It is an -ik verb, which does not concern you in the current context, but it means that the base of the verb is "feksz". It is this that requires the second person ending applied to it. Since that ends in one of -sz, -s, -zs, -z, (namely -sz) then it gets one of -ol, -el, -öl, (namely -el) rather than -sz, -asz, -esz.

You've tried giving it two second person singular endings :)

The only other thing to know about -ik verbs is that the first person singular indefinite is fekszem (same as the definite).


Te már lefekszel. ???


It is better than the official answer, because it ignores "down" and makes the kinematic statement static.


Does "maris fekszel" work?


It is a good sentence, a question with a meaning about: "Are you lying so early?" It is static, does not contain the movement, which is indicated by "down".


Why "Már te fekszel" is not accepted?


It's not the most natural word order for this sentence, and there aren't many contexts where it would be used. It means something like: "now it's you who's lying". As if some people took turns in lying down. Or as if two people were wrestling, and one of them seemed stronger, but suddenly the other one knocked him to the ground: "You shouldn't be so arrogant anymore, már te fekszel."


Why doesn't this end with "-sz"? Or is it an irregular verb?


Not really irregular. If the stem ends in a sibilant (-sz, -s, -z, -zs), then the harmonising -ol, -el, or -öl is used. The word, "fekszik", is an "-ik" verb, so its stem is "feksz". The other significance of "-ik" verbs is that the first-person singular indefinite conjugation uses the first-person singular definite conjugation.


Ti már fekszitek is not correct?


Ti már fekszetek. That is okay.

(fekszitek would be the definite conjugation for "ti")


Why is it "feküsztök" and not "feksztek"?


You mean fekszetek? They might be interchangeable. I tried to look it up. Feküsztok would be Transylvanian, but the preferred version is fekszetek.


Is "Fekszel már" incorrect?


I think that that would imply that the person you were conversing with knew that you were already doing something, and you are advising them that that something is lying down. I find that, when there is an adverb involved, I can usually get away with putting that adverb immediately in front of the verb and leaving any preverb in place.

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