"The apple belongs to me."
Translation:התפוח שייך לי.
It depends on if the thing that "belongs" is masculine or feminine. Here "apple" is masculine, so it is שייך. If I said the car belongs to me it would be המכונית שייכת לי since "car" (מכונית) is feminine.
It would at least have to be התפוח הזה שלי to be a grammatically correct sentence, but then you're emphasizing the apple - which apple? this one.
I've seen a lot of dispute over he/hu versus ze/zot. Is there any hard rules about when to use which?
There is no verb here. In fact, there are numerous cases where a verb in one language translates into an adjective in another and vice versa. That happens when the copula in the present tense is omitted.
Oh I agree with you there. But doesn't a sentence need to have at least a subject and a verb to be a sentence?
Not really. It is true for English, because English always requires a copula in sentences like "She is smart" or "He is a teacher" and the copula in English is always a form of the verb 'to be'. In languages like Hebrew or Russian, for example, no copula is used in the present tense to connect the subject with the predicate when the latter is espressed by a noun or adjective. By the way, English grammarians always use the terms 'subject' and 'verb' together, where, strictly speaking, they should be talking about 'subject' and 'predicate', given that the verb is a part of speech like a noun, an adverb or an adjective, rather than a function in a sentence.
Ok I gotcha. Good thing I'm not a grammarian. I wouldn't have known that. :)
Exactly the same question as nina.. can את came with possesses or just with names
When do I use li and when do I use oti, if I need the objective second-personal pronoun? Does gender matter?
The gender doesn't matter in this case. "Yesh li" stands for "I have". Otherwise, li stands for "to me" or "for me" as in "give/lend/offer/tell/buy/write me something". Oti corresponds to "me" as a direct object of any transitive verb as in "she can see me", "she likes me" etc.
Thanks for the quick response. Ownership meaning objects, possession as in people? Because ownership kind of implies possession or vice versa.
Ownership means it's yours (you may or may not have it, possession means you have it (it may or may not be yours). For example, I own a car, but if I've lent it out to someone, I obviously don't have it. Hope that helps. :)
I was confused about this too, & saw a great explanation in Colloquial Hebrew book. Paraphrasing, If you need the direct object et & a personal pronoun, you combine them together and get oti etc. So if it were otherwise: I saw her. Since her is a specific person you'd need a direct object "et" before her, they get combined, the Hebrew version of a contraction... .אני רואה אותה . We love him
אנחנו אוהבים אותו.
Is SHeYaKH one of those exceptional verbs that don't have the O sound in the first syllable in the present tense forms? What other verbs behave like that?
Is this a new-ish formulation (within the past 30 years)? I never learned it.
I don't remember ever learning this much about grammar the first time around (In school & I worked in publishing)... Then again, I know a lot is two words. (Small victories!)