"These Polish cities are next to rivers."

Translation: Ezek a lengyel városok folyók mellett vannak.

[m4k0un]

Is "Ezek a lengyel városok mellett folyók vannak." a correct translation for this sentence? If not, why?

[iRBiS]

It's not a correct sentence. Take a look at the second sentence below to see how to make it correct. However, even then, it's not the correct translation. You see, "lengyel városok mellett" means next to Polish citities, while "folyók mellett" means next to rivers.

• These Polish cities are next to rivers. = "Ezek a lengyel városok folyók mellett vannak."
• Next to these Polish cities, there are rivers. = "Ezek mellett a lengyel városok mellett folyók vannak."

[vytah]

So if you're using ez/az as a determinative, you need to add the postposition after it too? Just like with case endings?

[iRBiS]

Yes, the demonstrative pronoun has to be afflicted, and/or you need to add the postposition after it, too.

• On/with that condition... = "Azzal a feltétellel..."
• In this case... = "Ebben az esetben..."

However, "Ez esetben..." is also correct in Hungarian, so there are a few exceptions.

Like the definite article 'az', the singular demonstrative pronouns 'ez' and 'az' also lose their letter 'z' if the postposition that comes after it starts with a consonant.

• Next to those Polish cities... = "Azok mellett a lengyel városok mellett..."
• Next to these Polish cities... = "Ezek mellett a lengyel városok mellett...."
• Next to that Polish city... = "A mellett a lengyel város mellett..."
• Next to this Polish city... = "E mellett a lengyel város mellett..."

Also, the letter 'e' without a postposition is an archaic way of writing 'ez a' and its afflictions, so try reading 'e' as 'ez a' and afflicting 'ez' in Hungarian sentences if it's not clear at first what they mean.

[Bronsje]

why is

Ezek a lengyel városok a folyók mellett vannak.

wrong?

[Harga]

a folyók - the rivers (Try this: Ezek a lengyel városok folyók mellett vannak.)

[tberkes]

Why not use rivers in the accusative? I used "folyókat"

[MrtonPolgr]

A better question is: why would it be? :) It's not a direct object.

In Hungarian, the overwhelming majority of postpositions don't take arbitrary case endings. Adverbials often do but they often do in English as well. ([valamin] kívül - outside [of something])

[H_Karesz]

for editors:

Ezek a lengyel városok folyók mellett találhatóak.