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  5. "Ela tem se sentido melhor."

"Ela tem se sentido melhor."

Translation:She has been feeling better.

January 31, 2013



This sentence doesn't make sense to me. Can somebody confirm whether or not this is accurate? And if it is, can you please break it down for me, so I can see how it works?


It's correct. The present perfect in English is equivalent to the compound past perfect in Portuguese, so "tem sentido" = "has been feeling".

The verb "sentir", when referring to oneself, is reflexive, therefore it needs a reflexive pronoun ("se" in this case). You can say "Ela sentiu uma pontada no peito" (She felt a stitch in her chest), because the object is the stitch here, but when the object and the subject are the same (she), the verb becomes reflexive. It's similar to French, if you know a little about it.


*present perfect continuous


Would the past participle ever have a feminine ending?


Never when you're using "ter" ou "haver" as auxiliaries (i.e. in the compound tenses). The past participle does inflect according to number (and often gender) when you're using "ser" and "estar" as auxiliaries of the passive voice/reported speech.


Thanks. I ask, of course, because past participles with avoir do accord with the direct object, so I didn't know whether the "se" or similar pronouns would change it.


"she has been better" also makes sense, but so far is not allowed

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