So, because the definite and indefinite conjugations are the same, how do we know whether the meaning is 'I am drinking' or 'I am drinking it' ???
Context! If there's no direct object in the sentence giving you a hint on what you drink, you cannot know for sure if you're just drinking, or drinking something that's been mentioned already.
All -ik verbs have that issue in first-person conjugation, but luckily also most -ik verbs are intransitive. :)
Of course, but there is no context in these sentences...so both translations should be accepted. And reporting is a useless action at this point because nothing has been touched in months.
Are most really intransitive? All I can think of now (as I sit here at my desk at work, so not really in a Hungarian mindset), iszik, eszik, jatszik...all can take 'it' as their object...
So, as a rule of thumb, if the verb ends in -ik, the 1st person singular form will end in "-m" and the 2nd person informal singular will end in "-l"; if it ends in something other than "-ik", the 1st person singular form will end in "-ak/ek/ök" and and the 2nd person informal singular will end in "-sz"?
(That was maybe a little too wordy...)
Yes, mostly. There are tables in the notes to skills "Verbs 1: Present Single" and "Verbs 2 Present Plural", though they don't cover -ik verbs. And it gets a bit more complicated because definite conjugation (skill "Definite conjugation" ;-)) adds other forms for the second person.
Not quite -- the "l" and the "m" are independent, I believe.
If the verb ends in -ik, the 1st person singular form will end in -m. (But at least for some Hungarians and some verbs, -k sounds not uneducated but natural.)
If the verb stem (disregarding any -ik) ends in -s -sz -z -dz, the 2nd person informal singular will end in -l.
Here, both rules match (iszik has both -ik and -sz).
And as gergo2 pointed out, endings change again in the definite conjugation....