"Kit látsz?"

Translation:Who do you see?

July 13, 2016

This discussion is locked.


"Who" should be "Whom", just as "ki" is "kit."


That's not how a majority of English speakers speak any more, I believe. That ship has sailed -- "who" is no longer incorrect as an object.


I think that nowadays "whom" is most often used when it immediately follows a preposition: to whom, for whom, etc. Many speakers will not use "who" in such cases, although they will in other cases where it is an object rather than a subject.

1. For whom is it intended?
2. Who is it intended for?
3. For who is it intended?
4. Whom is it intended for?

You do hear 3 and 4 from native speakers, but I think 1 and 2 are more common.

Of course 2 and 4 get us into the question of ending an English sentence with a preposition -- but that is a different can of worms.


You’ll get no dispute from me that “who” is more common. I try to use “whom” whenever it appears as an object: “Whom are you meeting there?” “Whom can we expect for New Year’s?” and so on. If that sounds pedantic, pretentious, or old-fashioned, well... so be it. At least I avoid “whence” and “whither”.

As for ending sentences with prepositions, I assume that most native speakers are on the same page. I do that profligately in the spoken language (and see, e.g. the Scandinavian languages: Hvor kommer du fra?). In formal written language, probably thanks to centuries of influence from Latin grammar crowding out the pre-existing Germanic, I try to avoid it like the plague: “For whom is that intended?”, rather than “Who(m) is that for”, for example. (And I admit that “Who is that for?” now sounds more natural, and I’m probably as likely to use it if I’m not thinking about grammar...)


It may not be how a majority of English speakers speak, but it doesn't make it any less incorrect in my book. It's at times like these that I wish we had an academy or institute to settle this in English... At any rate, I will be saying "whom" for as long as I'm saying anything.


Yes, and since this is a language site and "Whom do you see?" is 100% correct and no one can argue otherwise, it should be using that.

If people are going to say "If lots of native speakers say it, it is 'correct,'" then "Me and Mark are best friends" becomes correct because it is extremely common for English users to use "me" as a subject when there is a conjunction.


Technically, it should be "Whom do you see?"


The translation should give the choice "Whom" instead of "who."


Would who can you see also be correct here, or is that something else?


The ability to see would rather be expressed with tud látni or láthat.


Miért nem "Kit látod?"?


Mit, kit, amit, and akit are indefinite.


You do not use the definite conjugation simply because there is a direct object in the sentence.

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