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  5. "I do not sell this to anybod…

"I do not sell this to anybody."

Translation:אני לא מוכרת את זה לאף אחד.

July 14, 2016



I translated anybody as מישהו, thinking the sentence meant that she would only sell to specific people. It was marked wrong because it should have been translated as אף אחד. Shouldn't the English be "anyone" in this case?


Anyone and Anybody are synonyms in English. In Hebrew they would be translated to "כל אחד" when used with a positive meaning (e.g. Anybody can do that = כל אחד יכול לעשות את זה) or "אף אחד" with a negative meaning (like the sentence above). It can also be translated to מישהו when used in a question (e.g. Do you see anyone? = ?אתה רואה מישהו), but usually מישהו means "somebody".


ani lo mokheret et zeh le-af ekhad


why no article with זה


in hebrew you would use "הזה" when you talk explicitly about a specific thing from a selection of identical objects, or objects that have something in common (for example, if my mom hands me a red apple from the fruit baskets and I want a green apple, I'll point on the apple I want and say "אני רוצה את התפוח הזה")


Why not "איני" instead of "אני לא"?


In formal Hebrew איני is actually more correct. Informally it's not used.


This sentence in English could imply that the speaker does sell to some people, just not anybody. E.g. "I don't sell alcohol to anybody. You must be 21." Could that same interpretation be applied to the Hebrew sentence?


at first I wanted to say no, but actually, you have a point. usually this santance woud mean "I sell it to no one" but it can also mean (in Hebrew) something like "I don't sell it to anyone, I sell it to [an important\close someone]"


I respectfully disagree with Hamutaltul. I can't interpret the Hebrew sentence this way.


I cant figure out what לאף means?


The phrase אף אחד means "nobody" (or "not one"), and they've added the ל preposition ("to") on because they won't sell it "to anyone."


When "it" is the direct object in a sentence, in Hebrew it goes together with את, so you end up with את זה.


Should the part with the preposition את always come before the part with the preposition -ל, or is it only like that because it's את זה?


Generally the ל part and the את part can come in either order. If it's את זה or לזה, in the common case where זה is not very stressed, I guess it's more natural to put it first (and if it is very stressed, either order).


Why is it marked wrong to say אני לא מוכרת . It's not clear if they want the masculin or the feminin version


It shouldn't be, since feminine form is the default answer. Maybe you made another mistake that you didn't notice.


I am confused Why לשום אחד wrong her? Isn't שום=אף


I assure you that שום אחד sounds completely wrong. I'm not sure why. Possibly because of the original usages of שום as "a thing" or 'something of a".


Thsnks Yarden. It looks that's the rule, but I need a native speaker confirmation that שום אחד is wrong and shom only goes with things. As your explianation for the rule contradict the tips that say: Both שום & אף means not a single and that they both comes before nouns yet שום is more common in everday usage, which indecate they are equivelant in meaning with no distenictive difference. May be like "noone" & "nobody" in English have no difference in meaning. So hope some native confirm the rule that shom is for things and af is for people.


Yarden is a native Hebrew speaker, so you can trust him. שום אחד is simply not idiomatic. Just like it will be שום דבר and not אף דבר for "nothing". That's just how Hebrew works. You can't really take other languages as a reference point, because different languages work differently. With things, yes שום and אף may be synonymous, but from my understanding, even there שום is more common, because אף is more formal.


So it is official Thank you both

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