Why is ”ki egy almat lat” incorrect, while ”egy almat ki lat” is accepted? I thought the word order was flexible. Are there any extra rules?
The question word is always followed by the verb. But the word order is flexible after the verb.
Why is wrong: ki lát egy almát?
Why is the word egy not used in this translation.
Ki lat EGY almat?
How do you know what ending to put on the apple, as you dont know whose it is?!
When there is an action (verb) affecting an objet, it has to be transformed (accusative). Alma = almát
Álmat is the accusative form of álma. It does not belong to anyone in this context.
I keep seeing that egy may or may not be included.