"The man cuts sixteen tomatoes."
Translation:הגבר חותך שש עשרה עגבניות.
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אדם was refused I looked up this word in several disctionaries, and in every case, the very first definition was "man". As I understand it (please correctme if this is wrong) this word can in general designate either a man or a woman, like "person". . But I have never seen it used in a specific reference, such as we have here, to refer to a woman. Only in general sentences like "man is a featherless biped" does it refer to a person in general, and not a male. Is this right? So in my sentence האדם חותך ,,, עגבניות a Hebrew reader would read it exactly like an English reader would read "a man cuts ... tomatoes"