"Who has food?"

Translation:למי יש אוכל?

July 18, 2016

14 Comments
This discussion is locked.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LukasisLearning

Why isn't יש למי אוכל a correct answer?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/radagastthebrown

The interrogative word has to come at the beginning of the sentence.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LukasisLearning

Good to know. Makes sense.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/genistv

Why are יש למי and למי יש equally valid?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/radagastthebrown

I don't think "יש למי" should be accepted.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jeftakels

Why not? Can you explain?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/YardenNB

That's how Hebrew works in this case. Why? Maybe someone has a real explanation, but maybe it's one of those "just because" things of languages.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Matt92HUN

Why is יש למי אוכל incorrect?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Dmitry_Arch

Why can't you say it without יש? Simply "lemi okhel?" Is it because it would be understood as "Who is the food for?" or the sentence doesn't make sense without יש?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/YardenNB

In an affirmative sentence, you can say לאברהם אוכל instead of לאברהם יש אוכל. I think this is the biblical form. It was used in modern Hebrew (like in books from 80+ years ago), now sounds very formal and archaic. Not sure how it would work in interrogative. Theoretically maybe it does, but not sure I ever heard or read it.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Cranberry.-.

It's just grammatically incorrect. It doesn't really make sense without yesh


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Olivier653856

Why למי יש אוכל but not ממי יש אוכל


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/radagastthebrown

ll -יש ל is the Hebrew equivalent of "to have", so "Who has" = למי יש. Your suggestion, ממי יש, means something like "From whom is there food?".

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