Just to make life more complicated . . . .In English it can also mean that someone has 'sold' you an idea: eg. He has sold us (on the idea of us going to the North Pole for Christmas!)
how do we know it is sold us out and not just sold us?
So it would work for human trafficking as well as simple betrayal.
Sorry, I'm not native in neither German nor English, what is the difference between "sold us" and "sold us out"?
Sold us = "You are human property that has been sold"
Sold us out = "Someone has sold information to betray or undermine you for their benefit"
Then there's also "He sold us a car" or 'He sold us a house'. But 'He sold us.' definitely implies slavery. Feb 23, 2015
Not so. "He sold us" is a common expression meaning "He convinced us."
In English, "he has sold us (out)" means "we're being betrayed", is this also the connotation in German? Can this ever have the connotation of slavery?
I can't comment on the German meaning but, if you and some friends were unlucky enough to be hijacked by pirates then you might find yourself saying this.
Can this also be "He has sold to us?"
I'm curious also, can verkaufen be used without a direct object? in this particular case? (if i get ladamson right, they're asking if you can assume that uns is dative without making the sentence nonsensical)
You'd have to add a direct object.
Er hat uns etwas verkauft.
Further confusion "he has sold us out" could also mean that he is such a good salesman that he has sold your entire stock from your store. (Usuall a good thing if you are a shop keeper)
I think in that case one would be more likely to say, 'He has sold out the stock," although using the first person, one might say, "Sorry, we're sold out."
Slavery is wrong!
Explanation for this sentence bitte
Just the opposite, how would you say, "He has sold out to us?"