"The man drinks."
Translation:El hombre bebe.
Because: [El hombre bebe.] = [The man drinks.]
el = the
él = he
If it had asked us to translate [He drinks.]
Then we would, indeed put, [Él bebe.]
But it did not. It asked for [El hombre bebe.] which means [The man drinks.]
Hope that is more clearly stated.
I think with El/Ella/Usted, you have to use bebe.
for bebes it will be: Tu eres bebes
Just curious, when we say in English "he drinks", this can refer to "he drinks alcohol". Can this logic also apply to Spanish?
Yes, I said also "El hombre bebe" and it understood "El hombre toma". Weird :)
Both are correct. It just depends on what country you are for common usage, but either will be understood.
we're not in french, we have to put the 'El' like a full article, i think so...
From my... thoughts(?), the contraction is between the two vowels sounding. In French, with 'Le' and the phonetic of hombre, it would make sense. But in Spanish, you have 'el' with the 'L' sound separating the 'Eh' and 'Oh' sounds of the two words.
Beber is the verb to drink now depending on the situation The man drinks is el hombre bebe and usually refers to alcohol drinking. Now if after the Bebe you use a drink or something liquid then it refers that he drinks that particular drink.
can some one clearly differentiate between Como;comes;come and similarly for bebe;bebes;bebo...
In previous lessons hover over the verb and click the "C" to see how to conjugate.
These are regular -er verbs, so o = I ... ie. I eat, I drink es = you ... ie. You eat, You drink e = he/she ... ie. He eats, He drinks