"Hol vagy? Nem látlak."

Translation:Where are you? I don't see you.

July 22, 2016

This discussion is locked.


Why can't i translate nem látlak as I don't see you?


It should be an okay translation. But in situations like this, English likes to add a "can" to talk about the ability to see someone.


This is an excellent example of how text to speech in place of human voices with natural intonation is unhelpful. I could not discern a question tone, so I had no idea what was being said at first.


Can we use pronouns in negative sentence? En nem látlak?


Sure, it's fine to use pronouns with negative sentences just like affirmative ones.


why don't we say látlak? the suffixes are just -lek and -lak?


I don't understand the question. The Duolingo sentence does say látlak.


we say látok for indefinite conjugation. if we want to say i see you, why dont we say látlok?


The endings for "subject = I, object = you" are -lak and -lek; you use those instead of -ok and -ek of the indefinite conjugation.


Anyone else having problems with this recording? It sounds like "Hoop vagy" to me


There's a dent in the voice recording at the end of hol. But I think it's still recognisable.


What makes its "i cant see YOU"? (its the same for do you love me is just "szeretsz" - because that also means you love right) so where do you get the "you?"


from the -lak ending

Note that this is a third option, a special one. Only used if the subject is "I" and the object is you (either te or ti). Szeretlek = I love you.

Látok egy házat. I see a house. (indefinite)

Látom a házat. I see the house. (definite)

Látlak (téged). I see you.

So it is not exactly the same as with "szeretsz" because that was the normal indefinite conjugation.


'Where are you? I do not see you.' Was marked wrong. I have reported it just now.


Azon en is csodalkozom, hogy miert nem ismerte fel?

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