"The ducks do not want to eat."

Translation:הברווזות לא רוצות לאכול.

July 26, 2016

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Elsewhere, Duolingo accepts both duck and drake as the Hebrew equivalent of barvaz. So barvaz should be accepted here. In fact, in English (at least American usage) the word 'drake' is unusual, except for technical precision. If I ask my butcher for a duck, I am not concerned with its gender. NOTE: Disney's character is Donald Duck, not Donald Drake!!! barvaz should be accepted here.


ha-barvazot lo rotzot le'ekhól


I realize that most ducks are female, but there are also some male ducks. I see nowhere on the internet where they are called anything other than ברווזים so I suggest that this needs to be accepted too.


How are ברווז and ברווזות pronounced?


"Barvaz" and "barvazot". Generally when there are two vavs in the middle of a word it says "v". Hope that helps!


Why shouldnt "to eat" be pluralized in this case?


Because infinitives (to + a verb) don't have a plural form. Just verbs. So, for example the infinitive "לאכול" stays like that no matter if it's referring to a man, woman or a group because it literally means "to eat." But the verb "אוכל" (eat/eating) changes to match the thing/person it refers to. Does that make things a little more clear? Basically the difference is simply that "לאכול" is an infinitive and "אוכל" is a verb. Infinitives don't change and verbs do (as far as masculine/feminine and plurals).


Thank you. Does that hold only for lamed plus verb because of infinitive? Is it on all verb cases? I remember reading a few of the groups had unusual rules.


Yes, it does hold true for all verbs. If it is an infinitive it would never be plural, but if it is an actual verb it has four present tense forms. Here are a few examples from five of the seven binyanim.

Infinitive forms:






Present tense verb forms:

אוכל - אוכלת - אוכלים - אוכלות

מדבר - מדברת - מדברים - מדברות

מבין - מבינה - מבינים - מבינות

נכנס - נכנסת - נכנסים - נכנסות

מתחתן - מתחתנת - מתחתנים - מתחתנות


I think is a general rule. It functions in Indo-European languages I know - English, French, Spanish, Occitan, Latin, German, Italian, Russian as well as Hebrew. The infinitive is invariable. I'm curious, now. Does anyone know of a language where the infinitive is NOT invariable?


Well, your question is somewhat wrongly put, because not every language has an infinitive verb form.

But anyway, according to the Wikipedia article on infinitive, Portuguese, Galician, and Sardinian do have variable infinitives. On the other hand, Greek, Bulgarian, Macedonian, Arabic don't have infinitive.

This is the article : https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infinitive. It's not extensive, but an interesting read.


Yes, Portuguese has the Impersonal Infinitive (the "regular" infinitive of verbs in other languages) and the Personal Infinitive, which has personal endings like all conjugated verbs. Hungarian also has one.


Thank you I was questioning that.


The correct answer in the multiple choice used the word אינם instead of לא. What does that mean?


The inflections of "אין" can be used for negation instead of "לא" in present tense. אינם is an inflection of the word "אין" for third person plural masculine (הברווזים). Generally you'd use it to sound more formal. There's an inflection table in the "Formal" lesson, I'm not sure if you've reached there yet but there's a table in the Wiktionary entry as well - https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%D7%90%D7%99%D7%9F.


What's the error in: הברווזים לא רוצים לאוכל Duo says it has a typo, but I can't find it.


It should be לאכול


you are just plain wrong here. admit it!


What do you mean? Who is wrong? Was your answer rejected? What did you write?


Fully agree with above barvaz should be accepted


Barvaz? I don't think so. You need plural, barvazim or barvazot.

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