"Szeretem a fiúkat."

Translation: I like boys.

[mbongartz]

I am confused. Here a translation with and without "the" is accepted.
However, in sentences where the "a" or "az" is missing, the translation has to be without "the".

Is "a" used here to stress "fiúkat" or what is its function?

[wyqtor]

I think that, in Hungarian, when referring to a category of things, you must use the definite article. It's just like in Spanish, where you would say 'me gustan los chicos'.

[sloyp]

Why "szeretem" and not "szeretek" in this sentence?

[Judit294350]

"a fiúak" is a definite object so takes the definite conjugation. So -em not -ek.

[AurliaForr]

I love boys.

[viviciak]

Confused because of "a fiúkat". Shouldn't the English translation be: I like the boys?

[Judit294350]

English often drops the "the" for general statements.

[bnyugat]

It's using the definite conjugation and yet not translating boys as a definite object... If it were 'I like boys' wouldn't it be 'Szeretek a fiúkat', with the indefinite conjugation?

[Judit294350]

No - because in Hungarian it is a definite object. "Boys" as a category - not any boys.

[Matt_legrek]

a bit confused ... i was noted wrong when i wrote "szereteM a lanyokat" for "i love girls" (correct answer was " szereteK a lanyokat")
and now the translation is "SzereteM a fiukat". does the rule change with gender ? :/

[MrtonPolgr]

If this really happened, it's simply a mistake in the course. SzereteM a lányokat and SzereteM a fiúkat surely - and this is what I got accepted myself. Gender doesn't play any grammatical role in Hungarian.

[Theo963438]

The definite conjugation is used (szereteM) because of 'A fiukat'. I get that, but why is the indefinite 'boys' used in the translation and not 'THE boys'?

[Judit294350]

Because a general subject in English - which this is - does not use any article - but it is still definite ie it is not some boys but all boys in general.