"Szeretem a fiúkat."

Translation:I like boys.

July 27, 2016

13 Comments
This discussion is locked.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mbongartz

I am confused. Here a translation with and without "the" is accepted. However, in sentences where the "a" or "az" is missing, the translation has to be without "the".

Is "a" used here to stress "fiúkat" or what is its function?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/wyqtor
  • 2783

I think that, in Hungarian, when referring to a category of things, you must use the definite article. It's just like in Spanish, where you would say 'me gustan los chicos'.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sloyp

Why "szeretem" and not "szeretek" in this sentence?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Judit294350

"a fiúak" is a definite object so takes the definite conjugation. So -em not -ek.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/viviciak

Confused because of "a fiúkat". Shouldn't the English translation be: I like the boys?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Judit294350

English often drops the "the" for general statements.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/bnyugat

It's using the definite conjugation and yet not translating boys as a definite object... If it were 'I like boys' wouldn't it be 'Szeretek a fiúkat', with the indefinite conjugation?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Judit294350

No - because in Hungarian it is a definite object. "Boys" as a category - not any boys.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Matt_legrek

a bit confused ... i was noted wrong when i wrote "szereteM a lanyokat" for "i love girls" (correct answer was " szereteK a lanyokat") and now the translation is "SzereteM a fiukat". does the rule change with gender ? :/


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/MrtonPolgr

If this really happened, it's simply a mistake in the course. SzereteM a lányokat and SzereteM a fiúkat surely - and this is what I got accepted myself. Gender doesn't play any grammatical role in Hungarian.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Theo963438

The definite conjugation is used (szereteM) because of 'A fiukat'. I get that, but why is the indefinite 'boys' used in the translation and not 'THE boys'?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Judit294350

Because a general subject in English - which this is - does not use any article - but it is still definite ie it is not some boys but all boys in general.

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