I am confused. Here a translation with and without "the" is accepted. However, in sentences where the "a" or "az" is missing, the translation has to be without "the".
Is "a" used here to stress "fiúkat" or what is its function?
"a fiúak" is a definite object so takes the definite conjugation. So -em not -ek.
It's using the definite conjugation and yet not translating boys as a definite object... If it were 'I like boys' wouldn't it be 'Szeretek a fiúkat', with the indefinite conjugation?
No - because in Hungarian it is a definite object. "Boys" as a category - not any boys.
a bit confused ... i was noted wrong when i wrote "szereteM a lanyokat" for "i love girls" (correct answer was " szereteK a lanyokat") and now the translation is "SzereteM a fiukat". does the rule change with gender ? :/