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You're missing the definition of gustar. It doesn't mean to like, but rather to please. In Spanish they use this construction where we use "to like" something. A él no le gusto, I don't please him/He doesn't like me.
So, I said "I don't please them" . Is it wrong just because its not the usual way to say it in English, or is it something else?
That is a literal translation and is useful for understanding the grammar, but the actual meaning and the context in which it is used translates better to "They don't like me" than "I don't please them".
Like to express a headache you'd say "a mi me duele mi cabeza" which means in english syntax "to me i hurt my head" but literally it'd translate to "my head is hurting me" which in this specific case just means "my head hurts."
Not "to me I hurt my head", but [preserving word order] "to me (duplicated for emphasis), to me is (verb/action) hurting my head (subject of sentence)"; better literal translation [words rearranged to match English] "my heads hurts me, to me (emphasis)".
Never before have I seen yo + gusto. This was a real puzzle to me. My 501 Spanish Verbs book doesn't even go into those regular forms. I went to https://www.123teachme.com/spanish_verb_conjugation/gustar and that site said (copy and paste): "Notes: Regular verb. The verb is most frequently used in the third person singular or plural to express like: Me gusta el libro (I like the book); Me gustan los libros (I like the books). The verb is used with me, te, le, nos, os and les. ALL forms of the verb are possible, e.g., Me gustas tú. (I like you). We do NOT list the other forms. These forms are only needed by more advanced students. To express that you like someone, the verb caer is frequently used, e.g., Ella me cae bien. (I like her)."
First thing, I always try to think of gustar as "Blah blah is pleasing (to whomever)" before making the leap to "Whomever likes blah blah." Second thing, the website took care of my confusion about the existence of gusto, gustas, gustamos, etc. Take a read of Dduh's comment below (probably above, really). But my confusion was only reduced, not eradicated.
So if Me gusta el libro means I like the book, then Les gusta el libro means They like the book (the book is pleasing to them). El libro (objects are third person singular) is responsible for gustA (third person singular conjugation). I substituted Yo for el libro in order to say that I am pleasing to them (They like me), so now I have to use the form gustO. I now have Les (them) gustO yo=I am pleasing to them (or They like me). Finally, I insert No to make the declaration negative=No les gusto yo. No les gusto yo means the same as Yo no les gusto, but I think I read somewhere that it is more common to put subject pronouns in front of the sentence as DL has done here.
Be heartened. The good news according to the Spanish Verb Conjugator website is, if we are getting this sentence, we are now "more advanced students." We should all take 15 seconds to strut around (or not). I know I'll make the same mistake I made here at least a dozen times more before it gels. I hope this helps someone.
Thanks very much for this - it has helped me a lot. Just by the by I notice that your reference speaks of caer bien as to get on well with. Whenever I use this combination DL rejects it and insists on llevarse bien. So thanks for that confirmation as well.
You're welcome. Duo uses caer bien and caer mal in its more advanced segments.
Let's break it down.
Gustar = to be pleasing to
Yo gusto = I am pleasing to
Yo les gusto = I am pleasing to them (they like me)
Yo no les gusto = I am not pleasing to them (they do not like me)
No me gustan or no me gustan ellos. They/ ellos is the subject in the Spanish sentence. Think with "please" to get the subject and object correct. I do not like them-they do not please me = ellos no me gustan
Wouldn't 'They don't like me' be Ellos no me gusta? This looks like 'I don't like them'
"yo no gusto" = I am not pleasing. "Les" = to them. Therefore, "I am not pleasing to them" = They don't like me.
Ellos no me gustan (with an "n" on gustan) = They do not please me. I don't like them.
After reading all 91 comments I understand the verb gustar a little better today! El verbo gustar me gusta. ¡Jajaja!
Here's a very famous song about things that I like.
https://youtu.be/v2oIqlEkX5s - Me gustas tú, by Manu Chao
It goes through a LOT of things I like:
Me gustan las aviones (I like airplanes)
Me gustas tú (I like you)
Me gusta viajar (I like to travel)
Me gustas tú Me gusta la mañana (I like the morning)
Me gustas tú
Me gusta el viento (I like the wind)
It's a great song to listen to because usually we talk about things that please us. I like this, I don't like that.... So it's good to get into the habit of "me gusta, me gustas, me gustan..." and hearing gustar match whatever it is that's pleasing me (or not).
Set about this translation with gusto! Translate literally as 'I not to them please' and then rearrange into proper English as 'they don't like me'. Easy peasy!
How about " A ellos, yo no les gusto.".or "Yo no les gusto a ellos". Would that make it easier to understand?
yo no gusto = I am not pleasing. To whom are you not pleasing? To them (les).Therefore = I am not pleasing to them = they do not like me. I think this is a wonderful phrase from DL which brings us closer to the reality of Spanish.
how do you tell whether it is "They do not like me" (I am not pleasing to them) or "You do not like me" (I am not pleasing to you)?"
They do not like me (I am not pleasing to them)
Yo no les gusto a ellos.
No les gusto.
You do not like me (I am not pleasing to you)
Yo no les gusto a ustedes.
No les gusto.
Yo no le gusto a usted.
No le gusto.
Yo no te gusto a tí.
No te gusto.
If it's not clear from context whether you're talking about "them" or "you all", you'd have to say "No les gusto a ellos" or "No les gusto a ustedes".
I might have friends who like me and I might do something that doesn't please them. It doesn't necessarily mean that if I don't please them that they don't like me. What a perverse way to expressing something, but then I suppose it's to be expected from someone who thinks about the world from an english speakers viewpoint.
In Spanish, we don't choose whether or not we like something. A thing is pleasing to us or it is not. The quality is inherent in the thing. It's not something we make up and decide for ourselves.
I think the answer should be, Ellos no me gustan, and not Yo no les gusto. Yo means I, how can this be correct!!! Im confused now!!!
Think of it this way: A ellos, no les gusto yo = as for them, I am not pleasing to them. Since les is a pronoun for them/you (plural), adding ellos would make the meaning clearer, but you'd have use the correct format: A ellos (as for them). Then gustar has to be conjugated to go with yo, so gusto. You've been doing this all along with gusta (it/he/she doesn't please whoever) and gustan (they don't please whoever). Now, it is I who don't please them, therefore, no gusto yo. Duo could have worded this sentence: A ellos, no les gusto yo. It means the same thing as Yo no les gusto. Yo no les gusto could also mean You (you all) don't like me. I hope this helps.
Sorry still dont get it the verb construct is not for they/them i feel is incorrect should be posible" Á ellos no me gusta" what do you think?
"a ellos" and "me" are not the same object.
A mí no me gusta = I don't like it
A tí no te gusta = You don't like it
A él no le gusta = He doesn't like it
A ella no le gusta = She doesn't like it
A ellos no les gusta = They don't like it
If yo is the subject, the verb has to be gusto.
If the object is "a ellos" you have to use les.
Yo no les gusto a ellos.
I am not pleasing to them (they do not like me).
Alternatively, if you want to use gustan, the subject has to be ellos.
If you want to use "me", the object has to be "a mí".
Ellos no me gustan a mí.
They are not pleasing to me (I do not like them).
My translation was: I do not like them. I typed it in Google translate and was given my translation as well: I do not like them. They do not like me is ' Ellos no me gustan. ' I really need an answer to this!
No, because the verb gustar means "to please".
Gustan = they please
Me gustan = they please me
No me gustan = they do not please me
(I don't like them)
Things I don't like:
No me gustan las arañas.
No me gustan los perros malos.
No me gusta la lluvia.
No me gusta mi maestra de español O.O
I believe this means "I do not like them." Shouldn't "They do not like me." be translated "Ellos no me gustan."
Ellos no me gustan = They do not please me.
Read the other comments, they're very helpful.
I have just typed into google translate the above sentence. The answer is I do not like them. Which is exactly what I thought it should be . They don’t like me , would surely be Ellos no me gustan
I think because the sentence starts with Yo, I expect this to mean, "I don't like them".
I live in a Spanish speaking country and they said the answer should be, I do not like them.
That's not right. Gustar is to please.
Yo gusto - I please/I am pleasing
No, because gustar doesn't mean to like but to please.
I am pleasing to them.
They like me.
No it wouldn't be. Gusto doesn't mean I like.
Please read the other posts.
i thought that there is no conjugation for gustar outside of gusta and gustan?
"Gustar" means to please. Me gusta él, I like him (lit. He pleases me). No te gusto, you don't like me (lit. I don't please you).
It has regular conjugation for every tense.
So, is this then how it goes?
(Yo) me gusto = I please me = I like me / (Tú) me gustas = You please me = I like you / (Él) me gusta = He pleases me = I like him / (Nosotros) me gustamos = We please me = I like us / (Vosotros) me gustáis = You please me = I like you / (Ellos) me gustan = They please me = I like them
(Yo) te gusto = I please you = You like me / (Tú) te gustas = You please you = You like you / (Él) te gusta = He pleases you = You like him / etc.
Sorry, i still don't get it..In the sentence "I don't like you" the direct object is "you", right? So in my understanding there should be a "te" in the translation => "No te gusto" (which is wrong obviously)?
The confusion stems from the fact that "I like you" reverses the subject and object from "You please me". ("to be pleased by" is really a more literal translation of gustar.) In spanish the subject and object follow the literal translation: "yo te gusto" = "i am pleased by you". However "I like you" is a better translation in terms of meaning and the switch from 'pleased by' to 'like' reverses the subject and object.
I think gustar is pretty unique in this way.
hmmm... it's not totally unique though. Parecer and molestar and others follow this pattern: http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/7925/the-conjugation-of-gustar
Aaron, They are among a group of verbs that demand indirect object pronouns. There is at least 17 of them of them. The most common probably: encantar, gustar, faltar, fascinar, intereser, parecer, preocupar, quedar. I'll look at your link. Thanks for posting it. DL doesn't give us enough sentences with them; they keep on testing us on gustar. That is what American textbooks emphasize, too. The other verbs need to be mastered as well. ¡Buena suerte!
It is uncommon, and some grammars say it is only "gustan" and "gusta," but it can be used in other persons.
No yo is the subject and cannot be in an objectform. You could stress the object with a ellos; ellas
Perhaps you're thinking of "gustó." It's one of the past tense forms for third person singular (él, ella.) For first person present tense, it's "gusto."
OK in an attempt to get the logic of how gustar works in my head, I tried:
"I am not pleasing to them."
and was marked incorrect. I imagine "I do not please them" would be marked incorrect as well?
Does anybody know if this is just a Duo bug since it seems like it should work, or is this just fully incorrect?
Spanish is designed incorrectly. Why does one have to reach the final words of the sentence to understand the beginning of the thought process of the sentence?!
an interesting thought - perhaps it flows from its latin base where verbs are placed at the end of the sentence. (if I remember correctly from years ago)
The same could be said about English. You don't know a thought until you read the whole thing.
gustar == to please, so it translates to "I do not please them", hence "They do not like me."
I think you are correct. Les means: to them (plural) the translation for: Les escribo would be: I write (to) them Gusto and Escribo are both singular. Les gusto would be translated as: "I'm comfortable (to) them" No les gusto should then be translated as: "I'm not comfortable (to) them" It doesn't automatically mean they think the same about you.
That's not how gustar works.
"I do not like them" would be, "no me gusto ellos"
"I do not like them." marked wrong! how can that be? the supposed correct answer is wrong!!. I have reported it and I'm very angry. According to what we've been taught by duolingo so far, I have answered correctly. + checked google translate and a native spanish speaker who agree with my answer. Duolingo's arbitary wrong marks is putting me off....and more importantly, depriving me of my lingots!!!! [I would have been a lingot billionaire by now ;)] Seriously duo needs to get it's act together.
Please read the thread again instead of getting angry. Your answer is wrong.
Gusto - I please (not I like)
Me gusta - I like
This is a very unusual use of gustar. Usually there are only two forms in the present: gusta and gustan....!!!!
It's legit. Gustar can also be conjugated like a normal -ar verb. In that case I think the literal translation of "to be pleasing" is better. http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/7925/the-conjugation-of-gustar