"One candy, two candies"
Translation:Jeden cukierek, dwa cukierki
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So cukierek is nominative singular? As well as, possibly accusative, in written language, but not in spoken, would instead be cukierka (according to a previous post)? Depending whether it is counted as masculine animate or not. I find this so confusing....
Yes, it is Nominative singular, and also I'd say that it's among those foods that are usually treated as grammatically animate, for example for "Do you want a candy?" I'd only say "Chcesz cukierka?" and not "Chcesz cukierek?", although technically the latter should be the correct variant.
1255
If cukierek functions as masculine animate why is it cukierki not cukiercy for nominative plural? (Like polak/polacy)
Plural nouns only distinguish between virile (masculine personal) and nonvirile (everything else).
Cukierki is nonvirile, but Polacy is virile.
"One candy" is not correct. You can pluralize it like "two candies," but it's rare, and generally refers to sort of old-fashioned-type candy, like individual hard caramels or something. But "one candy" is just not a thing.
"One piece of candy, two pieces of candy" would be the only way to say this using candy (because you can't use "two candies" here since you have one piece of candy right before it).
I accept that this may not be common usage, but I'd also trust the Merriam-Webster dictionary which clearly allows "candy" for "a piece of such confection": https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/candy
Unless others use it differently than the way I know, I'd consider "słodycze" to always be plural. I'd translate it to 'sweets', but I guess a part of the English-speaking word translates "cukierki" to "sweets". But "słodycze" are all those sweet things, like candy, chocolate, chocolate bars, M&Ms, and so on.
"słodycz" to me is something like "sweetness".
If I had to think of a singular for "słodycze", I'd go with "coś słodkiego" (something sweet), probably.