"Do you know where the subway is?"
Translation:Wiesz gdzie jest metro?
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a passage under a road or railway for people to walk through
The verb znać is strictly transitive, which means that it always requires a direct object. The only way znać can appear without a direct object, is when it is mentioned in the previous statement and implied in the subsequent one:
Znasz go? - Do you know him?
Znam. - I do.
But in this sentence, the direct object is replaced by an subordinate clause (yes, there's a comma missing between wiesz and gdzie) so due to the aforementioned rule, znać stands no chance here.
Wiedzieć, on the other hand, does not take any direct objects, except for a limited set of pronouns (to, coś, wszystko, nic, cokolwiek).
If wiedzieć refers to another noun, then the two must either be separated by a conjunction/relator or a preposition. And "when" functions as a conjuction here.
Znać also works with the abovementioned pronouns, in which case the distinction mentioned in Jellei's comment applies.
actually there is such a thing as British English: linguists use the term to decide a series of linguistic practices and spelling common to the UK. Rigour, not rigor; epilogue, no eliplog and so on. What is said in Glasgow is a a local variant. There are many words and phrases used in Western Scotland, but not in Eastern Scotland. So "Scottish English" is also problematic by this logic. "British English" refers to a standard agreed by authorities such as the Oxford English dictionary. It is like "Hochdeutsch" which many Germans do not speak, but they write it in formal (legal, etc.) communications.
Well... I know that there are some people that still are used to the way similar nouns (radio, metro, studio) have been declined decades ago - i.e. they didn't, all the forms used to be identical. But I'm pretty sure that most native speakers would consider it wrong. I checked the national corpus and it found 4 results for "stacja metro" and 312 results for "stacja metra". It seems safer to me to reject it.