"The Spanish man does not talk to the judge."

Translation:A spanyol férfi nem beszél a bíróhoz.

August 3, 2016

This discussion is locked.

  • 1098

Does "valakihez beszélni" mean "have a conversation with someone" or "say something towards someone"? If the latter, then I don't think you should use "talk to", since it implies the former.


Yes, that's right, "talk to" should be translated as "beszél valakivel".


What about: A spanyol férfi nem a bíróhoz beszél.


Why is "allative" case being use?. I can't see anything in the Hungarian sentence that indicates motion towards the judge.


Would "A spanyol férfi a bíróhoz nem beszél" be ok?


I tried this, two years after your question, and it was marked wrong too. I think it could be accepted...


Do you need "férfi" here? Isn't spanyol also a Spanish man on its own?


"A spanyol férfi nem a bíróhoz beszél." I think this should be accepted, unless I'm mistaken. Isn't the difference between this and the correct answer just that it is emphasized that it is the judge who is not being spoken with, rather than not speaking being emphasized? If that is the case I think it should be correct because the English example is neutral in its emphasis.

Learn Hungarian in just 5 minutes a day. For free.