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  5. "The Spanish man does not tal…

"The Spanish man does not talk to the judge."

Translation:A spanyol férfi nem beszél a bíróhoz.

August 3, 2016

8 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/vytah

Does "valakihez beszélni" mean "have a conversation with someone" or "say something towards someone"? If the latter, then I don't think you should use "talk to", since it implies the former.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Shamarth

Yes, that's right, "talk to" should be translated as "beszél valakivel".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/vasvariistvan

What about: A spanyol férfi nem a bíróhoz beszél.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/O_Matty

Would "A spanyol férfi a bíróhoz nem beszél" be ok?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rka46820

I tried this, two years after your question, and it was marked wrong too. I think it could be accepted...


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/dvanclev

Do you need "férfi" here? Isn't spanyol also a Spanish man on its own?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Nab918927

Why is "allative" case being use?. I can't see anything in the Hungarian sentence that indicates motion towards the judge.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Tabrizyc

"A spanyol férfi nem a bíróhoz beszél." I think this should be accepted, unless I'm mistaken. Isn't the difference between this and the correct answer just that it is emphasized that it is the judge who is not being spoken with, rather than not speaking being emphasized? If that is the case I think it should be correct because the English example is neutral in its emphasis.

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