"The Spanish man does not talk to the judge."
Translation:A spanyol férfi nem beszél a bíróhoz.
"A spanyol férfi nem a bíróhoz beszél." I think this should be accepted, unless I'm mistaken. Isn't the difference between this and the correct answer just that it is emphasized that it is the judge who is not being spoken with, rather than not speaking being emphasized? If that is the case I think it should be correct because the English example is neutral in its emphasis.