"Nie ma więcej masła."

Translation: There is no more butter.

[Glen624972]

Could this also be translated as "He doesn't have any more butter"?

[polec2]

Is "masło" in the genetive case because of "nie ma" or because of "więcej"?

[immery]

because of "więcej"

[JanKLinde]

I'd say it's because of both. Without 'więcej', it would still be "Nie ma masła".

[Euhan1]

Hurrah, die Butter ist alle!

[Kendra800150]

Is there a difference between "Nie ma już masła" and "Nie ma więcej masła" - for instance, that the first means that all the butter has already been used up, while the second can also imply that there is a certain amount available, but no more can be added?

[Jellei]

Yeah, that sounds about right. They could mean the same, but that additional interpretation seems also fine.

[MarjanvanK]

how do you say in Polish: there is no butter anymore ?

[Jellei]

"Nie ma już masła".

[ADJD4]

I've reported 'there isn't any more butter' as a solution

[Jellei]

Sure, added.

[viwdoapa]

I am a native English speaker and I think "There isn't more butter" should be accepted (people say this colloquially though it isn't the most precise).

[Jellei]

I think this may be a bit too colloquial for us.

[JanKLinde]

"There isn't more butter" could be understood in a less colloquial way as "That's all the butter we have". Isn't this a possible interpretation of the Polish sentence?

[Jellei]

Well... okay, let's allow it.