"You see red apples."
Translation:Piros almákat látsz.
Because "red apples" is not definite -- it is not "the red apples" or "those red apples" or "my red apples" or any particular, definite, known red apples, but just some red apples.
Is 'Látsz piros almákat' also acceptable, or is the inclusion of 'Te' absolutely vital?
"Te" is not vital at all, it can be omitted. Depending on context and emphasis, you may or may not omit it. If I want to emphasize you by saying "It is YOU who sees red apples", I would obviously include it in my sentence:
"TE látsz piros almákat". - You see red apples, (and not somebody else). You are the one!
Saying what? It is also a correct Hungarian sentence but of course the meaning, the emphasis, is somewhat different.
An adjective does not take the plural ending when the adjective comes directly before the noun. The plural ending is used only when the adjectives are in predicate position.
I wanted to ask the same question, but for your explanation. Köszönöm szépen!
correcting my incorrect entry DL offered: "Te látsz piros almát." When I clicked Discuss, I see this translation: "Piros almákat látsz." Can the first one be translated as "You see red apples" or should I report it?