With the prepositions ל and ב, when they are followed by the definite article, the ה is absorbed and leaves it's nikkud, לְהַדבורה becomes לַדבורה.
I get that, but would the question be any different had it been הדבורה instead of the ל preposition? Does it add anything new in this instance?
I believe it's because of the grammatical structure of 'to have'. It might have looked more accurate if it was 'יש לדבורה. After יש you need the ל.
The ה is implied by the vocalization "lah-d'vorah". If it had been pronounced "l'd'vorah" where the vowel in the ל's syllable was very short (?), it would mean 'a bee' as opposed to "la-d'vorah" which means 'the bee'. Sorry, I can't type vowels and I don't really know how to talk about them in English, but I hope you get what I mean.
"Does a bee have a tail" is also an accepted translation, as there is no way to tell which is meant without the vowels.
That was an accepted answer when I got this sentence without audio. I've since had it with a sound recording and you can hear lahdvorah so it's supposed to be the bee.
Although this sentence means "does the bee have a tail?" the literal meaning of the sentence is "Is there a tail to the bee?" 'יש' meaning "is there" and "לדבורה" meaning "to the bee". If we omit the "-ל", it will just be "the bee", and the sentence will not make sense.
Why does the יש go after the subject noun here? I thought יש had to come first?
it may be that way round to put the emphasis on the bee (as distinct from another animal)
kind of the translation :) it's the hebrew form of Deborah, Devorah, Dvorah etc. it's all the same name, only it's with hebrew letters
bee IS SINGULAR, HENCE THE ANSWER must be "has" and not "have" "bees have" "bee has"
But this is a question, where the rules for 'has' and 'have' change. 'Have' is the correct word here.
Deborah in hebrew is as I've said דבורה, but it cannot be "translated" as you don't and can't translate names, they only have a different form, but they are not translated (f.ex. William=Wilhelm=Guillaume=Guillermo etc.) . But to be honest I don't know what nesanef answered with 'No.' I think (s)he was talking about the question 'Does the bee have a tail?' but not sure... :/
"Does the bee have a tail?" WHY IS THIS NOT A GOOD ANSWER? why do we have to add GOT ?
Alot of times i dont know the english or hebrew word but when i see the options below i remember it. Should i still write the correct answer?
I think your question was "Is it correct to choose a word provided in the options of a word which I do not remember/know ? " ?
I think not (if this is what you meant) because all the options under the word are correct synonyms, but not all can correctly fit into the context of the sentence.
So how do i say "does bee have a tail?" without referring the spesific "(the) bee"? Or is it impossible to say that both in hebrew and in English?
You could say "does a bee have a tail?" or you could say more generally "do bees have tails?"
Why "the" bee? I would expect "hey" before lamed dalet, no?
I put "does a bee have tail" (I wanted to put "a tail" at the end, but there was only one "a" in the word bank), so I got it wrong.