"I drink water and milk."
Translation:Piję wodę i mleko.
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(Ja) Piję= I drink
our verbs take different forms depending on person, so we rarely use I/you/we/you pronouns, only for emphasis.
I've been trying to get my head around this for so long and you've put it so simply! THANK YOU!
I dont understand when to put the line under the e in pije or any other word...
Treat it as a seperate letter. Here, -ę is the first person singular verb ending (piję), and the feminine noun singular accusative ending (wodę).
Does "mleko" change with case? I haven't seen it happen in the examples. Not that I mind...certainly makes my life easier. :)
It does. But for neuter nouns, Accusative is the same as Nominative. Apart from those two cases you probably know also Instrumental, but if the word "z" wasn't introduced yet, then there was no sentence with Instrumental "mlekiem" yet.
Does anyone know how to type Polish accents in an English keyboard, or you can't?
If you mean a computer keyboard, then the easiest way is to install the Polish keyboard instead - it has everything in the same places as the English one, plus of course the special characters.
I typed piję mleko i wodę. And they said its wrong. Why is the order important?
Because we cannot be sure that you don't think that "mleko" means "water" and "wodę" means "milk". We can't be sure that you made a conscious decision to reverse the order.
Because they gave you a sentence and they expect you to copy it exactly but don't worry I have made that mistake too.
When is the e in pije with an ę? I always mix it up with the i / (s)he form.
So is pije actually a word? Does this work like "a" and "ą" in kobieta/kobietą?
"Pije" is the conjugated form for the third person Singular (he/she/it). "Piję" is for the first person Singular: "ja piję."
Hi guys! I have a question! Why when we say: She drinks: Ona pije but when we say : I drink Piję not Ja piję
The 3rd person form is the same for he/she/it: "on/ona/ono pije," so we have to specify the pronoun. In the first or second person, the pronoun is redundant, because the verb form is unique.
The Ja is implied because of the use of piję. Either construction is acceptable.
The question is also: why are you asking? ;) Because "pijam" is actually a correct answer (added now). However, this is a form of the verb "pijać", which we do not teach in this course.
The basic verb for "to drink" is "pić", with 1st person singular "piję". This works perfectly well both for "I drink" and "I am drinking".
The habitual verb "pijać", which is not exactly that common in Polish, has the 1st person singular form "pijam". But this only works for "I drink", not "I am drinking".
I thought the logic was using the 'em' for first person. So I used 'pijem' ... not good one it seems
"Pijem" is a slang or uneducated version of the 1st person plural or the 1st person singular but with spelling error: "em" instead of "ę", either way incorrect.
The full conjugation is here: https://pl.wiktionary.org/wiki/pi%C4%87
It makes sense as a sentence, sure, but we can't accept it. It is possible that the learner does not remember which word is which and can think that "mleko" means "water" and "woda" means "milk". Sure, it's more likely that it was a conscious decision, but still, we can't take that chance.
Ja pije mleko i wode - should be accepted as an answer. The order of the words may be in reverse, but the statement is correct.
Huh, two identical suggestions on one day? Let me copy the same answer:
It makes sense as a sentence, sure, but we can't accept it. It is possible that the learner does not remember which word is which and can think that "mleko" means "water" and "woda" means "milk". Sure, it's more likely that it was a conscious decision, but still, we can't take that chance.
Yes, every noun in Polish undergoes declension. So no, "woda" doesn't work. "woda" is Nominative, the basic case - used mostly for the subject of the sentence. Here it's the Accusative form "wodę", used for the direct object.
