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- "I drink water and milk."
"I drink water and milk."
Translation:Piję wodę i mleko.
42 Comments
(Ja) Piję= I drink
our verbs take different forms depending on person, so we rarely use I/you/we/you pronouns, only for emphasis.
I've been trying to get my head around this for so long and you've put it so simply! THANK YOU!
Does "mleko" change with case? I haven't seen it happen in the examples. Not that I mind...certainly makes my life easier. :)
It does. But for neuter nouns, Accusative is the same as Nominative. Apart from those two cases you probably know also Instrumental, but if the word "z" wasn't introduced yet, then there was no sentence with Instrumental "mlekiem" yet.
I dont understand when to put the line under the e in pije or any other word...
Treat it as a seperate letter. Here, -ę is the first person singular verb ending (piję), and the feminine noun singular accusative ending (wodę).
I typed piję mleko i wodę. And they said its wrong. Why is the order important?
Because we cannot be sure that you don't think that "mleko" means "water" and "wodę" means "milk". We can't be sure that you made a conscious decision to reverse the order.
Because they gave you a sentence and they expect you to copy it exactly but don't worry I have made that mistake too.
Hi guys! I have a question! Why when we say: She drinks: Ona pije but when we say : I drink Piję not Ja piję
The Ja is implied because of the use of piję. Either construction is acceptable.
The 3rd person form is the same for he/she/it: "on/ona/ono pije," so we have to specify the pronoun. In the first or second person, the pronoun is redundant, because the verb form is unique.
Does anyone know how to type Polish accents in an English keyboard, or you can't?
If you mean a computer keyboard, then the easiest way is to install the Polish keyboard instead - it has everything in the same places as the English one, plus of course the special characters.
When is the e in pije with an ę? I always mix it up with the i / (s)he form.
The question is also: why are you asking? ;) Because "pijam" is actually a correct answer (added now). However, this is a form of the verb "pijać", which we do not teach in this course.
The basic verb for "to drink" is "pić", with 1st person singular "piję". This works perfectly well both for "I drink" and "I am drinking".
The habitual verb "pijać", which is not exactly that common in Polish, has the 1st person singular form "pijam". But this only works for "I drink", not "I am drinking".
So is pije actually a word? Does this work like "a" and "ą" in kobieta/kobietą?
"Pije" is the conjugated form for the third person Singular (he/she/it). "Piję" is for the first person Singular: "ja piję."
It suppose to be JA pije... it just sounds like you telling someone to drink basicly its "drink water and milk" Im actually polish what want to learn ma roots again coz I speak too much English even though my English is bad Anyway Polish is my first so I know what Im saying I just want to remember and improve my grammar in both my language and English
If you're telling someone to drink, that's called imperative mood and is rendered as 'pij'.
First and second person subject pronouns are omitted unless emphasised. I suggest you read this:
