"Az a férfi megy oda a nőhöz amelyik gazdag."

Translation:The man who is rich goes over to the woman.

August 13, 2016

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How would one say "that man is going over to the woman who is rich?"


I could be sly and say "Az a férfi odamegy a gazdag nőhöz." :)

But let's see. There are two routes that come in mind that we could use. First: shift of focus.

Az a férfi ahhoz a nőhöz megy oda, amelyik gazdag.

I.e. we take the focus off the man and put it on the woman instead, so that the relative clause applies to her instead.

Or second: we use amely.

Az a férfi odamegy a nőhöz, amely gazdag.

The focus is again not on the man, but this time on the action itself. You can use amely as the conjunction, and instead on the focused word, it refers to the word right in front of the relative clause, just like you do in English. In either example you can use aki instead as well.


Why are there so many commas in the English translations. Do you think those are course errors? And woudn't you say in Hungarian, "az a gazdag férfi..."


hm....i'm not sure how to think of the difference between amelyik and amely.


If I understood it right:
amely: the man, who / a ferfi, amely
amelyik: the/that man, who / az a férfi....entirely optional, long winded bla bla..., amelyik

amely has to follow directly, amelyik needs the az pointer to find its target.

I have yet to grasp why I would want to separate the clause so far from the refered to sentence piece... especially when here you really could just say "a gazdag férfi...", so the entire clause is kind of artificial anyway.


I don't understand why amelyik gazdag refers to the man and not the woman in the sentence. How would I say "that man is going to the woman who is rich", meaning it's the woman who is rich?


I don't understand, why Duolingo tortures the hungarian learners with relative clauses in such an early phase of the course - beside a lot of other things the contributors did.

Let's analyse the sentence:

"Az a férfi megy oda a nőhöz / amelyik gazdag."

The first part before the slash is the main sentence. And it already contains a hint to a definite person: az a férfi.

The second part (after the slash) is the relative clause. It always begins with a relative pronoun like "ami, aki, amelyik...". And this relative pronouns always refers to a determined object or person in the main sentence.

It can not be "the woman", because "the man" was pointed out as "that man".

az a férfi => that man

a nőhöz => to the woman

If you are German speaking you may have problems with understanding the difference, because "der, die, das" can be articles as well as relativ pronouns. But the hungarian "a" is always an article, never a relativ pronoun.


thanks! i guess the Hungarian concept of a sentence having a 'focus' is still gelling in my imagination. this is helpful!


Thank you for the explanation! :-) I'm not German, I'm French, even though my name is probably more common in Germany than in France. We have different articles and relative pronouns in French as well.


And what if i say Az a férfi megy oda ahhoz a nőhöz - where is the hint for amelyik now?

By the way, what changes if I omit oda?


oda adds where that woman is (sort of). She is not near you, here (which would be ide), but there.

Your first question would also interest me.

And what happens, if I add some clauses.
That man, who is rich, is going to that woman, who is poor, on that street, which is bad.
Az a férfi, amelyik gazdag, megy el az a nőhöz, amelyik szegény, az az utcán, amelyik rossz.
Now I can't move anything except the verb and all relative clauses are stuck to their respective targets?


gazdag = rich (not reach)

I reported it.


"goes to over to"


smile I just focused on the first mistake ;-)


These exercises are rich and multilayered! They offer a large "main error" for you to focus on initially, but then there will be a smaller typographical or stylistic error to discover later on.


You mean it's reach, right?


It enreaches all of us.


Why not "that man, who is rich, is going over to the woman?"


It seems to be the preferred translation now.


Why not "that rich man ..." ???


Certainly possible without altering the meaning but you are losing the intented grammar.

Very similar to the short sentences in the beginning of the course which were something like this.
A virág szép. The flower is beatiful.
A szép virág. The beautiful flower.
Means the same but one is a sentence the other one more a fragment.


You have it in one form here but accepted different form earlier. I sense that you really don’t know how to present this so that it’s not ambiguous. The earlier form was: Az a férfi amelyik gazdag oda megy a nohoz. You dictated that sentence to us but now you mark it wrong.

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