Is it just me or do all of the sentences in this lesson seem like they're training me to break up with someone in Spanish? ;)
Lo rechazo = i reject it = wrong, Lo rechazo completamente = i reject it completely = right, no entiendo...
Context: either one is correct. Within the hypothetical conversation (that we don't hear), you would know if it was "him" or "it." Also, I THINK if it were "la" instead of "lo" it'd be "her."
So if I was to translate from English to Spanish "I reject him completely," would I write that "Lo rechazo completamente a el?"
@AngelaLynne, I believe your sentence is incorrect because "le" would be the word for indirect object. I believe that him would be the direct object and therefore "lo" or "la" would be needed as in Duo's answer. What/who do you reject? Him. If it were deny (rather than reject), then him would be the indirect object and whatever had been denied to him the direct object. In that instance your answer would apply. I feel pretty sure about this although I am a Spanish learner and so may be wrong. Someone please tell if what I have said is wrong.
"La" could also refer to a feminine "it" if it was something specific (rather than a concept or idea), but that's probably less likely.
You cannot know unless you are given more context. I'm a native speaker and I failed on this question because I thought it was referring to a thing, not a human.
I refuse it completely! should also be correct. Rechazar can also be used for refuse.
If it is a quote from John Boehner shouldn't the translation be I reject him completely?
Dougpruim -A suggestion in another lesson was "he beats his girlfriend" say no more!
I hadn't read the sentence before listening to the voice-over.... in English it sounded like she started with, "Yo rich ***hole.." Lol
I don't see why "I reject it totally" is incorrect. Seems like DL only wants you to use the English words that sound like the Spanish ones and vice-versa. And don't say "totally" is "totalmente". The fact that another word with the same meaning exists which sounds more like the English does not make it more appropriate.
I understand this can be both, "I completely reject HIM" or "I completely reject IT" but if one were trying to say that they reject a human, might they us "le" to refer to a person? - as in, "Le rechazo completamente"
Okay, someone please help. I'm very confused as to when to use le/lo and le/la... In this sentence "Lo rechazo completamente" is translated "I reject him completely," but in another sentence "Ella le trata bien" translates to "She treats him well" .... So when do you use "le" and when do you use "lo/la" ? PLEASE HELP!!
"Lo" seems to throw me off a lot. If the English translation is "I reject him completely", why doesn't the Spanish translation start with "Yo"?
Subject pronouns like yo are never required And in a tense, like the present indicative, where a particular conjugation can ONLY refer to one person, they are mostly omitted. You will see subject pronouns in the present tense for Yo, tú and nosotros much more commonly on Duo and in other learning programs, but as you progress Duo will wean you of them. The only reason that à native speaker would include yo here would be for emphasis of the I. In the third person and in tenses where the first and third person have an identical conjugation you will see them also for clarity, but in an actual conversation that clarity is often not needed, so they still may be omitted. But it is not incorrect to say Yo lo rechazo completamente.