Translation:I have had to listen to my father play the flute for years.
it would be like that you are in your house right? and then your father in the next room is playing the flute, in that case you are forced to listen him because both of you are under the same roof, it's not like your father is forcing you to listening him (sorry for muy english i'm still learning)
Duo's answer is very literal. However, in real life, in American use, we would just use the simple past even in circumstances when in Spanish "he tenido/tuve que/tenía que" was used. Of course, there is a difference: 'I've had to' implies you are still in that situation (living with your father) whereas 'had to' implies you've moved out. I did report it; we'll see if the owls agree. ;)
Both words can mean "to listen." Strictly, escuchar is used for more active listening, when you're giving your attention to something, and oír is used for more passive listening (such as would be the case in this example sentence).
In practice though, usage varies by country and I think they are often used interchangeably.
Yes, in Spanish-English dictionaries you'll often see oir translated as "hear" and escuchar as "listen." But Spanish will use oir in places where English would use "listen" like in this sentence. As another example, in English we'd normally say "Oh my gosh I had to listen to my neighbor's music all night long" even though you're not actively listening to it, you're just hearing it, being forced to hear it.
What might also help you make sense of it is to think about the sentence in english. "Mi padre TOCA la flauta" would translate to "my father playS the flute," whereas in the example we say in english "I have had to listen to my father play the flute," so you can see a difference. We don't conjugate it in english either ;)
I believe that a better translation is "For years I have had to listen to my father playing the flute." or perhaps "I have had to listen for years to my father playing the flute" "For years" modifies "to listen" rather than playing. I think putting "for years' at the end of the sentence may be considered a "misplaced modifier." !?
Is the QUE necessary? TENER QUE means "have to." In the above sentence tener is followed by the infinitive OIR, which means "to hear." What is the general rule regarding Tener que? Is it always necessary to have them together when saying "have to"...regardless of what verb/word fllows it?