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"No beer before four!"

Translation:Kein Bier vor vier!

February 3, 2013



This is the most un-German statement I've ever seen on this website. Good rhyme, though, it works in both languages.


I am German and the saying is very old and so also in use in Germany.

The saying "kein Bier vor vier" (no beer before four) comes from the workers' culture, 2 useful facts are known:

1.) No beer may be drunk during working hours (AM 6 to 4 PM).

2.) Issue of beer as wage. In many German states, there used to be daily beer to eat or pay for; in the case of dangerous work, this beer was only available at the end of the day, after 4 o'clock.

PS: But I also stick to it on Sundays and now drink my beer after 4 o'clock. °)


I have German friends and they say this...sooo


It is a very typical German saying.


How does beer rhyme with four?!


Before rhymes with four


And Bier rhymes with vier

  • 1760

That doesn't make the whole sentence a rhyme.


there are literary devices called internal rhymes. The most known type of rhyme is the external rhymes that are commonly used because it is the most obvious type of rhyming. However, internal rhymes are just as qualifying and shouldn't be looked down upon just because it does not sound like the everyday rhyme to most people


Kein Bier vor Mittag, nicht vier :p


It's four o'clock somewhere!


Could you use "bevor" here?


'bevor' is a conjunction which needs and starts a subordinate clause. 'vor' is a preposition, bound to a noun or time, either as location or time-indicator. 'bevor' only functions as the latter.


I don't understand why i can't drink beer before four


There's a time for drinking, and a time for working. Someone's got to keep the Eurozone afloat ;)


That's gonna ruffle so many feathers down in the south


So 'vor' means both 'until' and 'before' ?


I don't really understand why bevor couldn't be used here.


As far as I know, bevor is a conjunction, so it wouldn't quite fit here, since it's not introducing a clause. 'Vor', on the other hand, is a preposition, so it fits just fine.


Why is vor used here? Is it akkusative or dativ and why. Pls help.


Why is it not "keinen"? If you say "Einen Mietwagen, bitte" in the accusative because of the implied verb (ie; "[May I have] a rental car, please"), then shouldn't this be in the accusative as well for the same reason? (ie; [Drink] no beer before four.") Is it because Bier is neuter? Thanks to anyone who can shed some light on this.


Bier is neuter, while Wagen is masculine. In the accusative, "einEN Wagen" is used for the masculine noun, while "ein Bier" is used for the neuter noun.

At least, that's how I understand it!


This is incorrect.

You wouldn't say 'Einen Mietwagen, bitte', you would say 'Ein Mietwagen, bitte'.

(der) Mietwagen is the Subject (Nomimative case) in the above sentence, so 'Ein' is used.

In the sentence 'Ich fahre einen Mietwagen', 'ich' is the subject and 'Mietwagen' is now the direct object (accusative case) so 'einen' is used.

This table explains it better: https://germanwithlaura.com/definite-indefinite-articles/


Why is it 'Kein' instead of the nom. pl. 'Keine'?


Because Bier is singular and neuter. Das Bier. So we use "kein".


and why isn't It Keines Bier?


For the same reason it's not eines Bier.


I think it's not "keines Bier" because "kein" is actually an article, not an adjective, so it's not declined.


Both definite and indefinite articles do get inflected according to case, gender and number of course. However in the case of a singular neuter accusative or nominative noun the indefinite article is just ein, and so we also say just kein (which gets the same endings as ein)



So, what is the real meaning of " No beer before for " and is it a real meaning or only it's a saying with good rhythm


No beer before four* and it literally means "Don't drink beer until it is 4:00"


AM or BM ?, and why... what is the reason specifically in that time ? anyone please reply me


4:00 PM. The reason is twofold. 1) Because people typically have things to do during the day, and they probably won't be able to get them finished effectively if they're drunk. And 2) Because it's socially unacceptable to drink alcohol until the evening on account of the first reason, and because the people you need to work with don't want to have to see/hear/smell/talk to you when you're drunk. But even if you don't have any work to do, and you're just at home all day, it's still considered socially unacceptable, because people are judgmental pricks, and they'll think that drinking during the day is something that only losers do. It's a stupid and immature expectation that seeks to decide for other people how they spend their day, but that is the way it is. You've probably heard of "peer pressure" which is typically associated with one's peers trying to pressure them into doing drugs or alcohol. Well, this is kind of like the reverse of that: someone's peers trying to pressure them into not doing such things (at least until the evening, anyway). Not drinking until the evening makes sense if you have to be at work during the day, but other than that, it's stupid.


Four p.m., in the afternoon. Like the previous commenter said, there's a social expectation that during the day you should be working, accomplishing goals, and contributing to society. In the evening it's seen as socially acceptable to relax and have a drink.


For some reason, the computer is not letting me see all comments, I apologize if this is a repeat.

Why not Kein Bier vor um vier. ? I see um used a lot when talking about time. Just wanted to know if there is a rule I should be aware of or not. Danke!


Your comment translated to English would be "No beer before at 4" you don't need the "um". It definitely makes sense without it in this case. I'm really bad at explanations so not much more I can tell ya :p


OK, before 4 AM sure!


I'm seeing 'vor' used for both 'before' and 'aloud'. How do i distinguish between the two? Is it only 'aloud' when paired with 'lesen'?


    It's no so much that vor means "aloud", but rather that vorlesen means "to read something aloud" and the prefix sometimes detaches. The meaning comes from the whole and breaking it into parts is not always possible or sensible.

    Consider that the phrases "to gobble something up" and "to wolf something down" both mean "to eat something quickly". This does not mean that "gobble" means "wolf" nor that "up" means "down".


    Kein Alkohol vor eins! In Poland in the 1980s there was the prohibition against trading alcohol before 1 p.m.

    "Za dziesięć minut trzynasta" (Zehn Minuten vor eins) was a great Polish hit at the time.


    Why is "Nein Bier vor vier" wrong?


    Kein refers to the subject or an amount of something, while nein refers to a yes or no question.


    "Bier" is neuter so you use "kein". "Nein" is really only used as an answer to a yes/no question. (that might not be the only answer but I really can't think of any others right now.)


    Well the gender only dictates the ending. Nothing to do with kein vs nein. Though nein, just means no so it's always just nein. Kein does not have an exact english equivalent but it's easy to understand kein is the opposite of ein, or the English a or an.


    Nein means no or not. I was told kein is a contraction of 'nicht ein' and would translate to 'not one', 'not any' or similar.


    I'm afraid german people doesn't understand what "keine Bier" means.


      Because it's grammatically incorrect? :P


      How about, no beer before 21 (I don't know how the Germans have it, although generally younger children don't like the taste)


        In Germany, the legal age to drink alcoholic beer is 16.


        What is the difference between vor and hinter?


        funny, this was painted on the wall on the last hostel i stayed at xDDD


        Duplicate counted as wrong


        So when we talk about time vor means before but when we talk about location vor means in front of?


        Quick question, is there any reason why "Nein Bier vor vier" wouldn't have the same meaning?


        nein Bier vor vier ! Why is this wrong?


        because 'nein' means no as in the opposite of yes. 'kein' is more like no in the sense of 'I have no money'; it is closer to meaning 'nothing' than 'no'.


        when to use kein and when to use ohne?

          • kein- means "no [something]"

          • ohne means "without"

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