This is what i found while searching: "The joe sound is most frequently heard among people from Argentina, but can be heard in other Latin American countries. In other Latin American countries it sometimes be used for emphasis-- example: ¿Que piensas que voy a hacer yo? That yo is a joe no just in Buenos Aires but the Bronx too and anywhere in between. Also that joe has got a little "ch' sound in it."
In English, we use the word "you" for both singular and plural purposes; in other languages such as French and Spanish, "you" is different for the both the singular and the plural. In Spanish, it is also different if it is formal or informal speech (e.g. You would use formal speech if you were talking to a stranger but informal speech for a familiar person). To sum it up in Spanish, regard the table below:
tú - you (sing., informal); usted - you (sing., formal); vosotros - you (pl., informal, masc.); vosotras - you (pl., informal, fem.); ustedes - you (pl., formal)
To further clear up this issue, below are examples of "you" in plural and singular in Spanish and in English.
"you" (pl.) - You (all) should do better next time.
"you" (sing.) - You should do better next time.
In Spanish (informal speech used):
"you" (pl.) - Vosotros sois buenos. (You are (all) good.)
"you" (sing.) - Tú eres bueno. (You are good.)
Hope that helped!
Yes, that is essentially correct. If you come across a letter 'Y', it should be pronounced like a 'J'. (I am not aware of any exceptions) If there is a letter 'J', then yes, it will be pronounced like an 'H' (again, I know of no exceptions). However, it stops there. 'Y's sound like 'J's, but that does not mean that because the 'Y' sounds like a 'J' therefore it should be pronounced as 'H'.
To illustrate, "Yo" sounds like "Jo", but because it sounds like "Jo", it does not sound like "Ho". (I apologize if this does not make much sense; it's a confusing subject. Basically, you base the changes in pronunciation on the spelling, not the sound.)
They have slightly different meanings ( Leo = read ) while.. ( Leer = to read )
It's just a coincidence. "Leo" is the Latin word for "lion"* but "leo" is also the first person singular present tense indicative conjugation of "leer", which means "to read". Lots of languages have little coincidences like that.
* It might help that the origin of "leo" comes from outside Latin.
Sp. leer comes from Latin legere, which is cognate with Greek λόγος. 'Lion' comes from L. leo, which is from Gr. λέων, which itself is probably of Semitic origin. Interestingly the Persian šēr probably comes from the original Indo-European word for lion, yet this ended up being borrowed by Chinese (獅, shi1), while in almost every European language the word for 'lion' is from the presumed Semitic origin.
This link shows all of the conjugations for
leer. It's a useful site for Spanish verb conjugations.
Because that's how the "yo" form conjugates.
Because that's the conjugation for "I".
This link shows the full conjugation of the verb "leer":
Nouns don't usually change gender. "Boy/girl" ("niño/niña"), "grandfather/grandmother" ("abuelo/abuela"), "cat" ("gato/gata"), and "dog" ("perro/perra") are among the very very few exceptions.
But yes, if "book" were a feminine noun in Spanish, then it would probably be "la libra". But it is masculine in Spanish, so it is in fact "el libro".
leer is the infinitive "to read"
why does it force us to listen to it when it doesnt or used to not force us to speak into the microphone. maybe if we cant talk we also cant lisaten out loud at the stime if we dont habe any headphones or your schoolo computer doesnt play sound outloyud and the person next to oyu is using oyour headplones
beben is "they drink".
bebo is "I drink".
leer is the infinitive "to read".
leo is "I read". The infinitive is
Same reason you say "he reads" and not "he read".
Same reason it's "I read" and not "I reads".
This question has been asked and answered multiple times on this page already. http://www.123teachme.com/spanish_verb_conjugation/leer