"I give her strawberries."
Translation:אני נותנת לה תותים.
The word order is unnatural. It's like saying in English "I give to her strawberries".
So the pronoun goes after the verb? Would it be different if you were saying: I gave strawberries to her VS I gave her strawberries.
(Thanks, as always!)
why לה instead of אותה? Isn't her the direct object or is it something else? Does לה mean something like "to her"?
You're giving something to her. English is strange because it should be "I give to her the strawberries", but we just say "I give her the strawberries", and "her" is assumed to mean "to her".
With "give" the direct object is "strawberries", because it is what is being given. And "her" is the indirect object.
There is no mention of the past. The English is "give" and the Hebrew is נותן.
So people were asking why this is wrong. I want to know why it's right now haha. Wouldn't "נותן" be the wrong tense ("plural feminine them")? אני נותן לה תותים
and נותנת is feminine singular. The subject "I" is singular and apparently feminine. The verb also needs to be feminine singular to agree with the subject. It doesn't matter what gender the strawberries are or whether they are singular or plural.