I would say you couldn't translate this sentence as Deborah has honey (I had been considering that) because the first word is pronounced "la dvorah." So that has to translate as "the bee" here.
Why? Dvorah could be someone's name too.
Yes, but if it's a name, you don't add 'ה for definiteness, so instead of pronouncing "la'dvora", you'd say "le'dvora" (or, more correctly, "li'dvora").
I thought the hey was implied, do you mean in pronunciation?
Deborah is definite. However, the -ה prefix should not be used with names, just like you don't say "The Deborah has honey".
I did understand that the sentence means " the bee has honey",
but it was marked wrong when I just tried the word-for-word translation : " for the bee, there is honey " , which also might be considered correct .
It would be To the bee there is honey but I don't think they're accepting literal translataions, probably mainly because you just wouldn't say that in English.
That sentence "For the bee, there is honey" in English means there is honey available for the bee, not that the bee necessarily has possession of it.
Why is it ladvorah and not hadvorah ???
Because that is how possession works in Hebrew. יש ל means "have" and ל is attached to the word that has something. The same way as saying יש לי I have, here לדבורה יש the bee has.
Why is it incorrect to translate it literally; "to the bee there is honey"?
Because when translated literally, it sounds ridiculous. Would you ever say it like that?