I see that under πίνω is "I drink", can you just say "πίνω νερό.", and will people in Greece understand me? Like in Spanish where you don't need the subject?
Yes, because the omega in the end of πίνω shows that it's referring to the first person (in singular). Τhat is, the person who's saying it.
EDIT: A few examples with other verbs too. Possible answers to the question «Τι κάνεις;» (What's up?), besides the common «Καλά είμαι» (I'm fine), can be: «Πίνω μπύρα» (I'm drinking beer), «Τρώω» (I'm eating), «Μινάρω/Παπαρίζομαι» (I'm killing time), «Παίζω WoW» (I'm playing W.o.W.), «Διαβάζω/Μελετάω» (I'm studying for school/university). As you can see the personal pronoun is being omitted in all these cases and it's normal.
EDIT2: «Μελετάω» isn't used that much in common speech even if it's closer to "I'm studying" than «διαβάζω». The latter has a literal translation as "I'm reading". Examples: «Διαβάζω μια εφημερίδα» (I'm reading a newspaper). You'll rarely hear someone use the verb «μελετάω» with a soft read as a newspaper or a magazine.
Just to add to what miliarma said, Greek is what's technically called a 'pro-drop' language, meaning that the verb endings are different enough that the pronouns aren't needed and can be dropped most of the time without confusing anyone. Some languages like Spanish and Italian are the same.Others, such as English, German and French always need the pronoun because the verbs are too similar sounding - ie if we said "drank water today", it could mean any person did it (I, you, he/she/it, we, they). We need one of those pronouns to clarify which we meant.
Just a curious remark to the above. In Russian we also have different personal verb endings (though in present and future tenses only), but still we generally use pronouns along with verbs. Not using them is rather an exception.
Yeah, I've noticed that too. As a Greek studying Russian I thought we would kiss the pronouns goodbye after the first lessons - but no. Odd thing for a language so laconic that has no articles and has even dropped the verb to be!
May be if would be more forms of "to be" in Russian and they doesn't is droped in the present tense, then would be possible to drop pronouns oftener.
Oh, the verb "to be" in Russian (быть) does have all unique personal forms, however most of them have become obsolete.
Я есмь Мы есмы Ты еси Вы есте Он/она/оно есть Они/оне суть
Note that "they" used to have two forms (m/f). :)
I was goig to ask the same question, but i saw miliarmas comment. Miliarma, win the most amazing commenter award. You've earned it!
It is precisely like spanish. The ending specifies the person, so it can be omitted (and it usually does)
Does πίνω carry the meaning of "I am drinking (alcohol)." like English does?
Oh yeah, this is absolutely amazing!
πίνω = I drink (in Greek) пью = I drink (in Russian)
Νερό comes from the expression νηρόν ύδωρ which means fresh water, so people called it just νηρό to say it faster and it slowly changed and became νερό :) Fun little story
Interesting. I wonder if the word for "water" in most Dravidian languages (South Indian) - "neer(u)" has its roots from here, and also the Sanskrit "नीर" (neera).
You're welcome! If you also wonder what happened to άρτος (bread in ancient Greek), ψωμί comes from the word ψώμος which meant a mouthful of bread or food in ancient Greek :) Although basic words have changed over time, their etymology is somehow related to the original word.
Ancient Greek had όψον "a delicacy" and from that derived the diminutive οψάριον which got the meaning "fish".
Through dropping of unstressed vowels, that turned into ψάρι.
A bit like how σπίτι "house" comes from οσπίτιον, which in turn is from Latin hospitium.
In Greek, πίνω (pivo) means "I drink". In Ukranian, пити (pyty) means "to drink" (cmp Russian пить pit'). Is that a coincidence or a common etimology?
Just checked and Wiktionary says they both come from the PIE root *peH3- "to drink", just with different root extensions. https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Reconstruction:Proto-Indo-European/peh%E2%82%83-
Would it not be Πίρο νερά? It acts as an accusative and gave me that whole chart at the beginning...
The accusative is always the same as the nominative for neuter nouns, so νερό is the nominative or the accusative case.
νερά would be nominative or accusative plural, i.e. "waters" -- not often used, since water is usually treated as an uncountable noun.
And it's πίνω for "I drink", not πίρο.
can you please explain why in the previous sentence τρώω το ψωμί article (το) was used but in the current sentence there is no article before νερό?
It is like in many other languages. You use the article when you refer on a specific object . What do you eat? - I eat bread (bread is what I eat) vs I eat the bread (from what is on the table I chose the bread). Or: My mom is angry because I ate bread (despite I knew I had allergy on bread) vs My mom is angry because I ate the bread (of the family and now there is no more for the rest)
what is the origin of "nero" since classical Greek has "Hydros" ( udros) for water ?
υδρός is the genitive case; the nominative and dictionary form is ύδωρ.
I believe that νερό comes from νεαρόν ύδωρ "new water, fresh water", where the adjective eventually became a noun of its own, νερόν, modern νερό.
A bit like how Latin iecur "liver" begat iecur ficatum "figgy liver; fig-stuffed liver" and then that adjective took on a life of its own to become the ancestor of the modern Romance words for "liver" such as Spanish hígado or French foie.
thanks for that. only one thing ; udros is NOT the genitive, it is nominative. Genitive is udrou ( unless modern Greek has changed it.) My classical Greek dictionary says O UDROS - TOU UDROU
I was thinking of the wrong word -- το ύδωρ, του ύδατος (not του υδρός).
Your classical Greek dictionary uses Latin letters?
Also, Wiktionary says that ύδρος is a water serpent or other water animal, not "water" by itself: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%E1%BD%95%CE%B4%CF%81%CE%BF%CF%82
At any rate, it's not a word I've heard for "water" before.
my dictionary is Greek ( with greek letters) to spanish. I don't have the Spanish-Greek version. . It gives udros as a synonym to udra ( water serpent) . I remember from my school days that Hydros means water, which has given French hydraulique - hydratant- hydravion-hydrophile-hydrogene, etc. my dictionary doesn't have a traduction for water !! Regarding declinations, masculine sing. is ;nom . o - gen tou - dat, to (omega), Ac. ton - plural 0i - ton(omega) tois - tous - all this in Classic Greek, of course. I don't know about Modern Greek yet.