Can somebody from the team clarify this sentence? "Sorry I am not I" should be removed as a translation as it is a meaningless and in fact self-contradictary sentence. Does it actually mean "Sorry I am not myself" or "sorry it isn't me" or something like that? As it stands the given English translation doesn't explain what the Greek sentence means.
You were taught correctly. The given answer is commonly used, enough so that the nominative is often claimed to be obsolete. But the common usage is also unreasonable, however "normal" it sounds. There are reasons beyond grammar why the grammar should remain as you learned it. But we can accept that people don't always speak grammatically.
I think it's είμαι because it's indeed conjugated for first person. The subject in the sentence is "I", while a possible hidden object could be a pronoun like "it". Thus, we could rephrase the sentence in English as "Sorry, I am not(it)". If I'm right, we don't even need the εγώ at the end because the verb already takes care of that.
"It is not me" is colloquial American English, but grammatically incorrect. "I" in this case is what is called a predicate nominative; the nominative case is correct, even though it may sound stiff or odd. See the book "English Grammar and Composition: a Complete Handbook" by Warriner, pp. 28-29.
You are right of course, but, English, like all languages is constantly changing and evolving. It would not surprise me in the least that is is acceptable to say, Sorry, it is not me - there is an American song that has that as part of the phrase: Sorry, it is not me you are looking for.
Interesting example MaryEllen and it can be considered correct,( grammatically you shouldn’t end a sentence with a preposition) But it would be reasonable to consider the meaning of the sentence as “the person you are looking for is not me” in this case it is the object of look and takes the accusative me.
Sorry, no; you are confused by the dangling preposition "for", which also omits its "whom". "The person for whom you are looking ... "For whom you are looking", even shortened to "you are looking for", is a modifier, an adjectival phrase that modifies "person". It can be left out of the sentence to clarify the whole structure: "the person [...] is not I", definitely nominative case.
And of course, we can still accept that people do not always speak grammatically, even in song lyrics, even by famous songsters who use the colloquial.
The sentence structure is what it is, and the grammar is the logical formation of that structure and does not alter. But surely there is room in language for poetic license, and also for informality. Grammar makes clear a language's structure. It does not impose a set of rigid rules. Rigidity lies in imperfect learning. Poets learn how to use a language's real structure freely without violating the essence of what holds it together logically. Rules are tools, not molds.
For all those saying that "it's not me" is incorrect and "it's not I" is correct: "it's not me" is also considered standard in today's English, and is taught in Oxford University Press ESL books. Languages change over time. We all have different places where we draw the line and accept/don't accept various changes; but if it's good enough for Oxford, it's good enough for me.
I'm sorry! I'm just not myself. This exercise drives me crazy. And I can't figure out what it's really supposed to mean. I'm sorry I keep running into it, because I'm going to keep getting it wrong, I'm sure. I'm sure sorry. I'm not sure I'll ever not be sorry. But then, I'm not me in this case. Sorry.
I have no issue with the presence or placement of the word 《εγώ》in the sentence. In fact, I question why there is no comma after the word 《λυπάμε》. Given the greek sentence, my issue is translating the verb to a completely different verb (I am to it is) or 《είμαι to είναι》 and the first person singular subject pronoun into an english direct object pronoun 《εγώ to μου》. I have yet to learn about when to use long emphatic forms versus short nonemphatic form pronouns.
Referring to G.Georgopoulos' posts:
Thank you for the clarification(s). I answered with "Sorry, I'm not," also, thinking of a similar scenario. I agree with you for the most part, but in my humble opinion, and assuming correct Greek exercise questions with attendant declensions and conjugations; yet not forgetting a more variable word order in Greek than in English:
《Όχι, δεν είμαι》 and 《Λυπάμε, δεν είμαι εγώ》 are essentially the same: "I'm not." The only difference would be in the print ... underline "I" or "I'm" in the second translation.
So, I tried to translate "I'm sorry, that's not me" back into Greek, but came up with something completely different:
《Λυπάμε, αυτός δεν είναι μου.》
My reasoning is that "me" is a direct object pronoun, which is covered by 《μου》in accusative (or is it genitive?) case. If I messed that up, I'd appreciated help getting it corrected.
Is Duolingo going for strict translation, or what phrase gets the point across? But I get your point.
Hello, exercises on Duo are mostly about translating what we have in front of us. The point each sentence conveys can be discussed here, in the comments section. About your comment (reasoning), it will only make matters worse if you try to understand why Greek doesn't use a direct object here. The wording provided in Greek here is basically the same in most languages, English not being one of them. I remember when I was little and had just started watching my first movies in English (movies in Greece are subbed, not dubbed, which is pretty nice) and there was this clown at someone's party and he said something like "Who's turning 8 today?" and the birthday girl said "Me, me!" (instead of the "I, I" that I expected) and after that I was insanely baffled for weeks/months to come, until I simply realized I would have to accept this the way it is xD
Direct translation from one language to another doesn’t work in many cases. Imagine someone has done something wrong. You are asked about it. You reply, “sorry, it was not I.” The understood part is “it was not I, who did the deed in question.” “It” is used because you are referring to a deed with an unknown cause. Trying to take that odd construction into Greek, you would not expect it to be exactly the same; it is idiomatic to each language.
right--Spanish is like that, too. To say "it is I" in Spanish, you say, "soy yo," which translated literally into English would be "I am I." What you have to do is when writing in Greek, do it the proper Greek way to express the idea; when writing in English, do it the proper English way to express the idea :)