"Σε ποιον μαγειρεύεις;"
Translation:For whom do you cook?
It is still rejected; it shouldn't be, unless the idea is to drill people in old fashioned prescriptive English
The use of "whom" is being used less and less as the accusative etc being replaced not only colloquially with "who" but in more formal usage, however, there is one place it has remained sacrosanct and that is after a preposition. I cannot, as an Eng. teacher, think of a situation where we would not use "whom" after a preposition. It's not a matter of formal or informal it's just one of those grammatical facts of the language.
Something I'm aware of is that DL lessons in X from English are often used in reverse by native speakers of X to learn English, and on that basis, I think it's probably best to stick with traditional forms, since my impression is that L2 learners make a better impression if they are a bit traditional and don't get too far into innovative colloquialism unless they really really know what they're doing
That's correct, "whom" is used almost exclusively after a preposition, but I think that's because people only put "who(m)" after a preposition when they're trying to write formal prescriptivist English. "Who ... for" is the natural construction, but if you're going to put "for" at the beginning, you might as well use "whom."
oops, sorry "for who are you cooking/do you cook?" the 'whom' form is losing ground, even here, its last real stronghold.
Here is a list of very reliable grammar sources. Most are .edu, org etc. As a long-time translator and proofreader, I've used them often. They include both AE and BE sites.
This is used by major profressional publications grammerly
I know that many native speakers use "who" for everything but we at Duo have a mandate to teach only what is correct. This has taken me rather a long time to research and hope you are understanding.
Why am I not surprised? ;-) Have a lingot for your, as always, helpful comment.
Then the rational is that if someone doesn't know English we should teach them correct English. But if someone does know English we should assume they only know incorrect English?
But you're teaching Greek here, not English, and sources like the ones you cite are far more relevant for formal, professional English than for colloquial. If this were a course teaching English from Greek, I too would recommend 'whom' after a preposition.
The use of "whom" is being used less and less as the accusative etc being replaced with "who" not only colloquially but in more formal usage, however, there is one place it has remained sacrosanct and that is after a preposition. I cannot, as an Eng. teacher, think of a situation where we would not use "whom" after a preposition. It's not a matter of formal or informal it's just a grammatical fact of the language. The references given above are relevant and as a teaching course, we serve our learners best by following them rather than by assuming that all learners have joined the "no whom" group.
Hello,it's not a matter of difference in meaning,as a native speaker i would ask¨"Για ποιον μαγειρεύεις¨" and not "Σε ποιον μαγειρεύεις", although both questions would require the same meaning in an answer ,that is ,the person you are cooking for.
Hang on... The lesson notes specifically, emphatically stated that the relative pronoun is NOT an interrogative, whereas here it is being used very much as an interrogative object pronoun. Well, semantically, anyway. It conveys the same kind of question as "who are you," for which the relative pronoun would be inappropriate. I've noted below that it's correct, I'm just trying to figure out why, as it's not well explained in the notes. Can anybody help me understand how I'm seeing this wrong?
Please be more specific about what "lesson notes" you are referring to so if there is an error we can correct.