If you want to give emphasis to the amount of men. For example "ένας" is also 'one" so you could be saying "I am only one man" Or if you want to give emphasis to the fact that you're a man. Like "I am a man"
But in general it is really no different , just another way of saying "εγώ είμαι άντρας" . Hope that helped a bit.
"ένα" was just a typo. I was mainly wondering if "εγώ" could be omitted. Thanks for the correction and clarification.
In the audio, the lady actually says εγώ είμαι ένας, both epsilons are pronounced, they just sound like a longer epsilon. But, in Greek there is actually something like the french liaison. One could say "Εγώ είμ'ένας άντρας" and in oral speech, that is more likely to be said.
After the verb “to be” in Greek, we have to use the nominative case?
@kaliope884107 I, too, am frustrated that the correct answer is not given on the Skills page -- it just gives the meaning in English and the not-too-helpful statement "you missed a word." But if we click through to the Discuss page (such as this one) for any question, the correct answer is given at the top. I hope this helps.
Isn't the indefinite article supposed to be in the accusative case?
είμαι is not a transitive verb that takes a direct object.
Both "sides" (the subject and the predicate) are in the nominative case.
(Hint: one way to understand that it's not a transitive verb is by trying to put it into the passive voice -- which turns a direct object into a subject. But you can't turn "I am a man" into "A man is been by me" -- that makes no sense. That's a clue that "a man" is not a direct object and "be" is not a transitive verb "acting" on an object.)
For the record, nobody would say it like that in real life (even though it's grammatically correct).
To say "I'm a man" in Greek, we'd just say "είμαι άντρας". "Εγώ" isn't needed since it's already included in the verb (είμαι means "I am"). "Ένας" is also unnecessarily since it would be impossible to say "I am two (or three, or four) men" and άντρας is singular anyway.