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  5. "Τους διαβάζω."

"Τους διαβάζω."

Translation:I read them.

September 1, 2016

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I wrote "I read to them" and it was actually marked correct, so my question is: Does "Τους διαβάζω" mean both "I read them" and "I read to them"?


Hmm, interesting... Then I am curious, how does one say "I read them to them" στα Ελληνικά? It wouldn't be "Τους διαβάζω τα" would it? (if the "them" were βιβλία)


"Τους τα διαβάζω." I think it has the same logical order with the italian: "Glieli leggo". The phrase "Τους διαβάζω τα..." is incomplete and it needs an object (books): "Τους διαβάζω τα βιβλία".


Well, in Italian, "glieli leggo" means "I read them to him," so I am guessing that is "Του τα διαβάζω"... "I read them to them" I think would be "li leggo loro." Spanish would be a good comparison-"se los leo," but anyway, Ευχαριστώ- clitic pronouns tend to be a complicated topic in many languages- I am probably getting ahead of myself since I am just beginning with Ελληνικά, but I was curious...


I have the impression that "glieli" can be used for both "to him" and "to them", because "gli" is both "him" and "them"... I'll look it up (just a greek student here ;-) ). BTW, welcome to our language! (καλωσόρισες στη γλώσσα μας!) PS. I think "leggo/leo" is from the greek "λέγω/λέω" (I say) :-)


so there's no way to differentiate the specific intended meaning except to guess based on context?


It basically translates to the already given translation above. In any case, it would be uncommon for anyone to hear this sentence anywhere, without any context, and yet be expected to understand something different, so, no worries.


We have similar ambiguities in English; for example:

"Call me a cab!" "OK. You're a cab."


I read them is not English unless it applies to objects " I read newspapers" "I read them". I think, but I could be wrong, that in that case it would be "τις διαβάζω"

  • 5

Correct. In the same manner, if the object is a masculine/neuter word in Greek, it can be τους/τα διαβάζω, i.e. "Διαβάζω τους ορισμούς/βιβλία" = "I read the definitions/books" becomes "Τους/Τα διαβάζω" respectively. Similarly in singular: το(ν)/τη(ν)/το (m/f/n).


I wrote "I read for them" and it marked the sentence as wrong. Whats the different between "for- & to them"?


It's interesting that Gk has collapsed the dative into the accusative


It's actually the gentive that has replaced the dative case ;)

I see him/them.=Τον/Τους βλέπω. (Direct object-Accusative)

I read him/them a book.=Του/Τους διαβάζω ένα βιβλίο. (Indirect object-Genitive)

It's just that the "weak" form of the personal pronouns "us"=μας, "you" (plural/formal)=σας and "them"=τους is the same for the accusative and gentive case.


ευχαριστώ πολύ!


What exactly is meant by weak and strong here?


Strong (Emphatic) forms: Εμένα, εσένα, αυτόν....

Weak forms: Με/μου, σε/σου, τον/του...

Please check out the first PDF file (titled "personal pronouns") in this link. If you have any questions, just ask ;)


I put I read to them and it was marked wrong!


It has been added now, however, I think it would be more likely for the sentence -out of context- to have the meaning provided in the exercise above ("I read them") rather than "I read to them."


I think it should be to them in correct English. Impossible without to.

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