Hmm...this section has me quite confused- I wrote "my wife reads the book" and it was marked correct, so that is also a valid translation?? It just seems weird to me that the same sentence can mean both "the woman reads me the book" and "my wife reads the book" (those mean very different things to me, and every other language I speak expresses them differently...)
In the case of "μου/σου..." following a noun, which is the case in this exercise and the link shared above, one can distinguish the two words based on the presence or absence of the accent mark. In the rest of the cases, the pronoun cannot function as a possessive so there's no reason to distinguish the two forms by means of an accent mark.
in common greek, most people refer to their husbands and wives as γυναικα μου and αντρας μου. (it also means man and woman. so i can see why that would be confusing) you could also refer to them as your spouse or σύζυγος but that tends to be more formal and is less used in casual conversation.
Well, I guess I should have asked my question better. I am accustomed to the word for "woman" also being used for "wife" (it is also like that in the Romance languages and German), my real confusion comes from the ambiguity of "μου" in the sentence- it seems to be both a genitive and a objective pronoun...is that correct? In other words, "μου" can mean either "mine/of me" or "to me"? With intransitive verbs, this is not really a problem, but with transitive ones, it can lead to confusion. So, for example, in "το παιδί μου κοιμάται," the "μου" can only mean "mine," but in "το παιδί μου μιλάει," "μου" can be either "mine" or "to me" (i.e. "My child speaks" or "The child speaks to me"), right?
ahh i see what youre saying. i grew up speaking greek so when i read it the first time i read it as "my child speaks" i dont think ive ever heard anyone phrase "the child speaks to me" like this. instead we'd say "μου μιλάει το παιδί" its also a change in the cadence of the speech. when i read it as "my child speaks" i read "το παιδί μου μιλάει" when i read it as "the child speaks to me" it was more like ""το παιδί, μου μιλάει".
Indication of the used pronoun:
That's what I wrote DL marked it wrong but I agree with you and your Greek teacher. You could easily misunderstand this maybe a pause when saying the sentence could help to clarify meaning ie "Η γυναίκα, μου διαβάζει το βιβλίο. " or "Η γυναίκα μου διαβάζει το βιβλίο." Anyone have any more advise