Is this or can this sentence be understood as a hendiadys (use of two words to express one idea)? "I'm going to play." E.g., φιλότητι καὶ εὐνῇ (Homer: Il. 3.445). For DL, we'd have to translate literally with the conjunction, but if it's a hendiadys then English could express it with an infinitive. I also wonder because according to Douglas Adams, Essential Modern Greek Grammer (66), modern Gk has no infinitive form of the verb.