"Δεν θέλω επειδή δεν τρέχω."

Translation: I do not want to because I do not run.

[JanetHunt5]

Why is 'I do not want because I do not run' not correct?

[flora7369]

Why not: I don't want because I don't run?

[D_..]

For the phrase to be correct in English, it has to be "want to".

[MartynMcK]

The sentence in current form doesn't make sense - WHAT don't you want to do, to if (NOT) run to be correct the sentence should read "I do not RUN because I do not want to". If something else the gerund must still appear in the first part of the sentence i.e. "I do not want to take part because I do not run".

[G.Georgopoulos]

Such structures, however, are virtually always part of a dialogue, so that means that any verb has already been mentioned previously. "Do you want to come with me (or "take part", as you've mentioned)? No, I don't want to, because I don't run".

[pdog11]

Can someone explain to me why it's not:

δεν να θέλω?

[panagiotis_ts]

"Να θέλω" is present subjunctive, which is very rare and is not used in this sentence.

Also, when the verb is in subjunctive or imperative, you have to use "μη(ν)" in order to form negation, not "δε(ν)", which is used in indicative. :-)

[pdog11]

Thank you very much!

[DelynVeaud]

I put " i don't want to because I don't run" it marked wrong ?

[G.Georgopoulos]

It's one of the alternatives, however. Please don't forget to send screenshots in such cases so we know what has gone wrong.

[Kosta949739]

It should also allow "I don't want it because I'm not running" because it could be used in that active context.

[G.Georgopoulos]

I don't want it=Δεν το θέλω

[PauloMuffato]

Nice, I could reflect on the use of "it" thanks to this exercise and the comments.

[Condorandi]

I do not hear the "ν" on the second "δεν".

[troll1995]

It says δε ντρέχω [the dreho]. Natives use this type of conflation all the time.
ν+τ = d
ν+κ = g
ν+ψ = bz
ν+π = b
ν+ξ = gz

[Condorandi]

Thank you so much! The conflation "ν+π" confuses me because I thought that "μ+π" was "b". Also I understand that "γγ" is pronounced as "ng"?

[troll1995]

Ν actually "becomes" μ in front of a π and then together they make the b sound. γγ is pronounced as ng but that sound was not mentioned above.

[Condorandi]

Troll1995, this is very interesting: I have just learned why in Spanish you cannot use an "n" before a "pe" (equivalent of your Greek "π"), however the combination of "mp" in Spanish does not sound like "b". For example: "imperio" (empire in English) that comes directly from Latin and it means "power". I guess the Romans did not use the Greek rule of "ν+π = b".

[troll1995]

Ancient Greek did not have this conflation too, but that changed over the years.