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  5. "Αυτή δεν πίνει νερό."

"Αυτή δεν πίνει νερό."

Translation:She does not drink water.

September 2, 2016

21 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Euglot

Allergic to the stuff, apparently...


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ThomasMRS

yas she is dead now


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/srtokes

Am I getting overexcited or does δεν have an etymological relationship with the welsh ddim? Because if there is a link I think my etymology adoring brain will completely explode with happiness! :D :D :D :D :D


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/glossaphile44

Sadly, no. δεν is a shortening of ουδεν meaning "nothing." You can't see it now but δεν "not" is related to οχι "no" both in part coming from the ancient Greek word ου "no, not"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/srtokes

Ah, I see. Thanks for replying - it's still reeeaaally cool that you can see the links with ancient greek still though. :D


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ConnorDeHaan

Does the negative particle always come before the verb?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Hojinkie

Are νερό and ύδωρ interchangeable?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/D_..
Mod
  • 23

Except ύδωρ is not used in modern Greek! You can joke around and use it, but normal spoken/written word uses νερό.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/buscriga

Ύδωρ is the ancient greek form of water. It is only rarely used in modern greek in a couple of ancient greek expressions that carried over π.χ "γη και ύδωρ" meaning earth and water (in cases of submission, full retreat, unconditional surrender)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Bev78710

'She doesn't drink water' marked wrong! Seriously?!!!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KeithJones949537

Why is "She will not drink water" acceptable?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/squeaksta

I think "she will not" implies that sometime in the future, she is not going to drink water (like future tense). But "Αυτή δεν πίνει νερό" is present tense.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ZeMerka

Can't understand the meaning of δεν πίνει. I understand its a negative combination but can someone explain why one needs to use both words? Thanks


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/D_..
Mod
  • 23

The negation in the indicative is formed by δεν+verb. It is in fact easier than the English negation where you also need to employ the auxiliary to do. Both words are needed because one is the negation particle and the other the verb itself.
I googled 'negation in modern greek' and this was listed second: http://www.asteri.ws/en/gramm1/neg-en.html I think you'll find it helpful (and while it's a bit extensive you can just take what you need for now from it). Also check https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modern_Greek_grammar#Negation


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AlexanderR918249

Πίνει means "(he/she) drinks" Δεν means "not" So δεν πίνει means literally "not drink", which we would say "does not drink" It can also be translated as "is not drinking" There is no double negative here


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/moogiii

how is she alive...?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/phoulemarde

How do I determine it is a she? Wouldn't the sentence "He does not drink water be identical?"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KeithJones949537

αυτή means 'she', αυτος means 'he' and αυτό means 'it'. Αυτος and αυτη can both be also translated as 'it' where the noun being translated is an object and not a person. I think I have that right but I am only a beginner at this language.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/emstams

Is "she didnt drink water" not acceptable because its past tense?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Lasse432657

I am not a english native speaker, i get so verry fed up, getting faults on my english spelling, and thereby loosing points..... Does not or do not...... Going CRAZY on all this

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