Do these Greek sentences carry the same implication as in English that something happened afterwards? Or is this form used in some measure interchangeably with the aorist?
This our past perfect so is used : 1 For something that happened yesterday before something else happened : Είχα πλύνει τον σκύλο πριν οι καλεσμένοι να έρθουν (i had washed the dog before the guest came)
2 something that happened in (very) past that is have nothing to do with today Εκείνη την βραδιά είχα πάει στο κλαμπ για να διασκεδάσω (That night i had gone to club to have "some" fun)
I know that this is something very frequently said in Greek, however, from what I know, yesterday only goes with simple past in English. So, the question is: is this correct in any of the two languages?
It sounds fine to me in English.
(On the other hand, the present perfect "What have you cooked yesterday?" sounds utterly wrong to me.)
"What had you cooked yesterday?" implies to me "before [something happened, or you did something else]".
I agree, the 'before something happened' assumption makes it all work, but without it, it looks a bit off.
Well, no, you will never heat this sentence as you wouldn't in english. it makes no sense, as not do most if not all the other similar sentences. maybe "είχες μαγειρέψει τίποτα πριν έρθει το παιδί στο σπίτι" (had you cooked anything before the kid came home). But not by itself there it does not work of course!
It doesn't sound quite right to my ears: "What did you cook yesterday?" or "What were you cooking yesterday?" seem OK.
"What had you cooked last week before we went out?" sounds better ... it does seem to need that qualification of something else that happened afterwards, but still in the past, something that pushes the cooking even further back ... "What on earth had you cooked that time you nearly burnt the house down?", referring to some long past event ...