"The male artist is painting female artists and the female artist is painting male artists."
Translation:A művész művésznőket fest és a művésznő művészeket fest.
My response was tossed into the waste paper basket: "A férfi művész művésznőket fest és a művésznő férfi művészeket fest."
But I think it should be OK.
Or is it just commonly accepted that "művész" (without a gender) is always male - and so we don't have to say "male artist", whereas for a woman artist, we have to spell it out as "művésznő"?
I am just learning as well, but i think it is safe to say that that is the normal and "correct" way of referring to occupational titles, you only make the appropriate distinction when referring to the female gender.
I am guessing that it could be said the way you wrote it but for particular instances of emphasis, to "stress it out". But i am just guessing.
Well, let's look at an English example. Actors and actresses. Can an "actor" be a female? I think it can. So, how about this sentence:
The actor paints actresses and the actress paints actors.
What is your natural assumption of the gender of the "actor" and "actors"? Mine is that, simply by contrast, that is, because there are, specifically, actresses referred to in the sentence, the actors are most probably male. And that is exactly how it works in the Hungarian sentence.
That is just the natural assumption that works most of the time. But if you are writing a legal text, and gender is important, you are definitely better off actually spelling out who is female, who is male.
Is the second 'fest' really needed? I answered 'A művész művésznőket fest és a művésznő művészeket', which was marked as wrong.