"The man eats sandwiches."
Translation:Ο άντρας τρώει σάντουιτς.
Generally speaking the loan foreign words should not follow the foreign declension. For instance, σάντουιτς is a relatively new word to Greek, so it is wrong to write σαντουιτσιζ. A rule that is not followed though by many, it is wrong. Specially in English words. Some try to integrate the loan words to the Greek Grammar rules. It is not successful and not accepted by all. What is sure is that many loan word imported some decades or hundred years ago follow the Greek rules without any objection, as they are generally accepted. Language is an alive organization, so to violate a reform is not successful many times.
We also have uses with and without the article in English. At a buffet for instance, "The man eats the sandwiches and the woman eats the salad" You could point to the particular sandwiches and salad.
Compared to, what do the man and woman usually have for lunch " The man has sandwiches and the woman has salad" Sandwiches and salad in this case are almost concepts rather than physical items, you can't point to them.
I believe Greek makes the same distinction
But if it is both plural and singular - the same word - and there is no article in front of it in this example then why isn't it accepted as correct answer when I write down "sandwich" rather than "sandwiches". Why is singular form wrong if there is nothing to indicate that it should be plural???