Here is a link that helps explain "nada vs ninguno":
Hint: it does not have anything to do with "anything vs anyone"
In Spanish you must use a double negative. Always. Here are some examples: I don't like nothing. No me gusta nada. (Transliteration: I don't like anything.) I don't like nobody. No me gusta nadie. I don't like neither. No me gusta ninguno. I don't eat nothing. No como nada. That's just the way Spanish is!
What you say is mostly true, but I have noticed there are exceptions. For example: "Nadie habla" - it should have been "Nadie no habla", if it had to use double negative. At least that's how it would be said in the Bulgarian language, which always uses double negative.
"Doble negación" isn't really a 'compulsory way to say' in Spanish. We say those indefinite pronouns (nada, nadie, ninguna/o) at the end of the sentence just for emphasise the negation or to specify that you are referring the whole, but it could perfectly be said without the pronoun if you know what is the object we are talking about:
No te gusta ninguno = no te gustan
Yo no amo a nadie = yo no amo
Si no queréis nada, me voy = Si no queréis, me voy.
Además puedes evitar la doble negación si empiezas la frase con el pronombre indefinido: nunca, nada, nadie, ninguno o similar. Tú puedes decir:
Nadie habla, o, No habla nadie.
Nunca he ido a tu casa, o, No he ido nunca a tu casa.
If double negation doesn't work like it does in English, how would you translate an English double negation to Spanish?
If, for example, you wanted to deny someone's claim that you like nobody, in English you would probably answer "I don't like nobody" (maybe with emphasis on "nobody" if you want it to mean "I might not like a lot of people, but I like at least some of them").
A literal translation to Spanish would make me say the opposite of what I meant...
We don't have these "double negatives" in english.....or at least we're not supposed to. However, people learning english, or native english speakers who are less educated end up using doble negatives ("I didn't see nothing", "I didn't do nothing"......etc, etc.) and I seem to understand them fine, although I like to screw with their heads.
"I didn't see nothing!!" ohh, so you saw something? "but I just said I didn't see nothing!" but if you didn't see nothing, then you saw something, right?
I think that like english you should rephrase to be something more clear (like, in your example, you could instead say "I don't dislike everybody"), but that the key to being understood in such a situation probably lies in the inflection.
@gmpwack: I didn't mean the English double negatives that are meant to be just regular negatives. I meant the ones that are legitimately used to negate a negative (and result in a positive). Those do exist in English, just like the example I gave.
"I don't like anything" = "No me gusta nada"
As others have said, ninguno/a implies not any person (nobody) or not either thing (neither). Please correct me if I'm wrong. Pronouns are tough!
Shouldn't "I like neither" also be correct? Or what would be the Spanish way of saying that?
No me gusta- i don't like Ninguno-neither In Spanish they use a double negative. I don't like neither would be the translation but that doesn't make sense in English so you have to transliterate to i don't like either/any
yes, but sometimes (as in the case above) it can also imply both. the context is usually what gives it away.
We use "Ninguno" to refuse any of a few (two or more) options, people, things or abstract concepts, but "nadie" for persons, and "nada" for things refer the whole of persons or things are you talking about.
(is this correct English?)
(Almost: it should be 'and 'nada' for things referring to all the persons or things you are talking about'. If that's what you meant :)
Could you clarify the difference between ningun and ninguno/a? Thanks :)
Yes, it is. Thank you very much for your correction. Couldn't I use "the whole of" instead of "all of"? Is it incorrect or does it mean a different thing?
The other question. In Spanish some masculine adjectives ended with o are always apocopated before the substantive:
Buen hombre = hombre bueno
Mal > malo
Gran > grande (valid for feminine too)
Un > uno
Ningún, algún > ninguno, alguno
Veintiún, treintaiún, etc > veintiuno, treintaiuno, etc
Primer, tercer > primero, tercero
and sometimes, not always: San > santo.
No problem! No, you wouldn't say 'the whole of persons' or 'the whole of things' - that's incorrect. It would be 'all persons', or 'all things'. I don't know the actual rule, but I think 'the whole (of the)...' refers to the entirety of something SINGULAR e.g. the whole (of the) watermelon, the whole (of the) tree. Does that make sense?
There are very slight differences between 'the whole of' and 'the whole' but they're so minor that I don't think I even know what they are. E.g. 'the whole watermelon was cut' means exactly what it says, but 'the whole of the watermelon was cut' might imply more emphatically that you took ALL OF THE WATERMELON AND CHOPPED IT up. :P But using 'of the' is less common and might make the sentence clunky, e..g you probably wouldn't really say 'I cut up the whole of the tree', just 'I cut up the whole tree'.
Re: ninguno, etc. Thanks, I knew that but I'm a little unclear on how they are used.
Ningun hombre = no man? Ninguno hombre = wrong? And then you just use ninguno by itself? (no me gusta ninguno)?
Thank you for your explanation about the whole, I am clear now.
As I tried explaining ningun is ALWAYS used before a masculine substantive (never feminine) and it here works as adjective and (like any adjective) you could use it alone whether you are mentioning before the substantive you are talking about. In fact alguno and ninguno are really pronouns and you can use it as it is, without any substantive:
Ningún hombre/caballo/coche me gusta = ninguno me gusta
Using of that pronouns as adjectives AFTER the substantive is totally obsolete, it was used in old castilian language:
Hombre alguno me ha de retar pues todos me temen.
I hope this helps. ;-)
I am from Ecuador. So if you do not understand, excuse me. The numbers are (21) veinte y uno or veintiuno we never talk veintiún treintaiun cuarentaiun cincuentain and more You use veintiún etc in that: Hay veintiun estudiantes en esta esta aula de clases Solo usas para enumerar personas PEOPLE!!! I hope you understood me
I do not like anyone. (accepted). No me gusta nada = I don't like the look of it. (from Harper Collins Beginner's Dictionary Spanish) This is a helpful dictionary for beginners, and they don't use literal translations. Bravo.)
How are these different: "No me gusta ninguno." vs "Me gusta ninguno."?
I would translate the last as: "None of them pleases me" but then the 'No' in the first version does not negate the sentence. Illogical?
In Spanish, when a sentence is negative all its parts are negative for emphasis.
People don't say "me gusta ninguno." That's just not how Spanish works.
Yes, that's right, but you can also say "ninguno me gusta" and this means the exactly same of "no me gusta ninguno".
Double negative is permitted in Spanish. The rule you gave is correct for English.
I said 'I do not like either' and was accepted. In the answer it said an alternative answer is 'I do not like any of them'. Now, as far as I can see, my answer implies that there are two objects/people being spoken about, and the alternative answer implies more than two people/objects. Just an observation.
A fairly good but short treatment of the history of double negatives in English: http://oxforddictionaries.com/words/double-negatives
I think they don't accept it because it's not standard English grammar. I would never say "I like nobody"... I'd say "I don't like anybody". "I like nobody" sounds a little awkward to me
The translation is "i don't like neither/none/nobody". You need to start your sentence with I don't like (no me gusta). In Spanish, you use a double negative unlike English. You have to transliterate and say I don't like either/any/anybody.
If the correct translation is "I do not like any of them", why is it not "no me gustan ninguno"? "Me gusta" is "i like it" and "me gustan" is "i like them", right?
because "any" is singular. "ninguno" is basically like the negative version of "any". Because of that, "any of them" or "none of them" are each singular expressions, just like "one of them" would be, whereas just "them is plural
Thanks, it makes more sense to me now. The plural "of them" is basically modifying the singular "none/any", which is the subject of the sentence. Earlier, I thought "them" was the subject.
They're similar enough that I'd say it's worth reporting, but they have slightly different connotations.
This is a handy reference
@bvanw it is an interesting link. It does say there that double negatives aren't considered acceptable and should be avoided in all but very informal situations. Therefore not somethime that Duo would be accepting.
I dont like none of them ??? Why was that wrong native spanish speaker please help
In English you would say "I don't like any of them."
"I don't like none of them" has the double negative people are talking about here with both the "do not" and the "none". If you really tried to wrap your mind around it in English, "I do NOT like NONE of them" would reduce to "I DO like AT LEAST ONE of them."
Here's another example. Let's say I really do have a key. You are trying to find out if I have any keys and I am joking around with you. You say, "Do you have a key?". I could truthfully say, "Well, I DON'T have NO key." In English this statement is true since I do have one or more keys. If I really didn't have a key it would be truthful to say "I have no key" or "I have none."
Nada = anything Alguno = either "some thing" or "one" Algunos = somebody or someone Ninguno = nothing Ningunos = nobody or no one. Is that correcto?
I don't understand why it is not "no me gusto ninguno". Is there something special about the way gustar is used?
If we follow the previous reflexive constructions for gustarse, would this also translate to "None please me." or, to include the double negation, "No, none pleases me." ? Thanks!
this is what middle school boys say when they're friends ask them who they like. (of course they blush and look down when they say it. :) )
"Any of them" does not necessarily refer to people. It can also refer to things. Example scenario: "I have 3 pictures here. Which one do you like best?" "I don't like any of them."
gustar means "to please" or pleasing, not "like". "No me gustO...." means " I do not please me" or "I don't like myself". No me gustA means "he (or she or it) does not please me" or "I don't like him/her/it....".
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I typed it in wrong and it corrected me with: "I don't like a." I typed that in exactly the next time and got it right. If you say that in an English conversation everyone will look at you with anticipation to find out what you don't like.
Ugh. Doing this while my wife drives. It keeps saying correcting me, telling me "a." isn't a word.
When it's a word jumble exercise the two words 'of' & 'them' aren't available. So one's forced to select "I do not like any", which sounds extremely unnatural. The answer should actually contain the phrase "any of them".
Translated into English, I do not think this is quite a proper sentence. You would usually say 'I do not like any (something)'. It seems to me that the 'any' is left incomplete and dangling.
I tried "I don't like nothing" just to test Duo. Duo was NOT having it.
It corrects me saying ''i don't to like any of them''. ''i don't to like'' is definitely not an acceptable way of speaking in English.