"They read me a book."

Translation:Αυτοί μου διαβάζουν ένα βιβλίο.

September 8, 2016

This discussion is locked.


Why does μου have an accent here?


It shouldn't - it's a mistake.

It's fixed in the next version of the course that is currently under development.


Does "Αυτοί με διαβάζουν ένα βιβλίο " mean the same ?


Does "Αυτοί με διαβάζουν ένα βιβλίο " mean the same ?

No. It doesn't mean anything. It tries to give the verb διαβάζω two direct objects, but the verb can only take one direct object.

It's as nonsensical as "I see him the book". You can "see him" or "see the book" but you can't "see him the book"; the verb can only take one direct object.

If they read the book to you, that's an indirect object, so you need μου and not με there.


Thanks for your reply


Why μου is used here? It is weak genitive of εγώ (according to wiktionary, BTW, what are weak and strong cases for?) As far as I know, languages that have dative case use it in such sentences. But Greek doesn't have it.


Yes, Greek lost the dative case except in a few fixed expressions.

In standard Greek, it was replaced by the genitive case when using pronouns, but by the accusative case in the north. (When using nouns, then one usually uses the preposition σε + accusative.)

So you will find things such as μου δίνει, μου λέει, μου διαβάζει for "he gives me, he tells me, he reads to me" with genitive in standard Greek for what would be dative in other languages.

I'm not sure whether weak/strong is standard terminology, but the short forms of pronouns are used in close connection with a verb: right before it in the indicative, right after it in the imperative.

The long forms of pronouns are used by themselves (e.g. as the answer to a question), as the object of a preposition, or for emphasis (e.g. "he sees ME [and not anyone else]").

French has similar double forms for its pronouns.


the word read is both present and past in english


It should be : They are reading a book to me


Why it's "Αυτοί μου διαβάζουν", but "Μου διαβάζουν" is a mistake?


I have the same question. I suspect you don’t need the αυτοί.


It should be accepted now.


And what about αυτές? Marked wrong...


And what about αυτές? Marked wrong...

Please always quote your entire answer when you have a question about why it was not accepted.

There are accepted answers that include the word αυτές, but without knowing what you wrote, we have no idea what might have gone wrong for you.


https://sun9-48.userapi.com/c855336/v855336966/15a7ab/mDkSkBGtHEA.jpg It was hard to catch this exercise again, but I finally made the screenshot. I tiped very carefully, didn't change input language on keyboard. What's wrong with it? :(


Thank you LadyRovina for the screenshot!

That does seem to be one word order where αυτές is not accepted so far. I've added it now. (It may take a couple of days before it's accepted on the live site.)


And a lingot to you for finding the sentence again and showing us your screenshot!


Thanks to YOU for quick feedbacks and all greek course) Learning with pleasure)


Why is the accent on βίβλίο at the last syllable and not the first?


Why is the accent on βίβλίο at the last syllable and not the first?

It's not on the last syllable; it's on the next-to-last (penultimate) syllable: βι-βλί-ο.

And the accent mark is written there because that's where the word stress is in that word. The word is pronounced vee-VLEE-oh with stress on the next-to-last syllable.


Is αυτοί needed or can it be omitted since it is implied in the verb form?

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