"To whom does he reply?"
Translation:Σε ποιον απαντά;
This is a question about English, not Greek. I wanted to know, as a non-native speaker, if both the phrases "To whom does he reply?" and "Who does he reply to?" are correct. Can you also say "To who does he reply?"? Thank you.
"To who does he reply?" sounds incorrect to me.
I would say that the options are "To whom does he reply?" (most "correct" according to traditional grammar, sounds fairly formal to many present-day speakers), "Whom does he reply to?" (a bit less "correct" in the eyes of some, since the sentence ends in a preposition), and "Who does he reply to?" (even less "correct" in the eyes of some, since it uses "who" for the object of a preposition, but possibly the most widespread version).
The sort of people who care about the rule "don't end a sentence with a preposition" also tend to care about preserving the who/whom distinction -- the "to who" variant mixes conservative grammar with modern grammar and I'm not sure whether it's found in the wild.
It't not correctly accepted.
The phrase "Σε ποιον απαντάει;" It considered wrong. Why?? Akd two words ( απαντάει - απαντά) are correct. Thank you!!!
Sorry!! The phrase "Σε ποιον απαντάει;" It considered wrong. Why?? And two words ( απαντάει - απαντά) must be correct???? Thank you!!!
Thanks! Somehow I must have thought οι cannot make up the first part of a diphtongue, but it apparently can.
I'm not sure whether I'd call that a diphthong -- the /i/ sound of οι here turns into a sort of semivowel /j/ which is here pronounced [ç] since it's after the voiceless [p], so you hear [pçon].
But whichever way you analyse it, it's one syllable :)