"She likes coffee."
Translation:Της αρέσει ο καφές.
Why not, "Αυτή αρέσει ο καφές"?
Because with αρέσει ("appeals to"), the experiencer is in the genitive case (for pronouns) or uses σε + accusative case (for nouns).
The coffee appeals "to her" -- you can't say "The coffee appeals she".
So Της αρέσει ο καφές "She likes the coffee (the coffee appeals to her)".
Raleigh, what Philip says isn't rare in European languages, btw. Most Romance ones, and perhaps Germanic, would be the same. Seems to rarely cause confusion. This comes up often also with conceptual nouns like freedom, virtue, comprehension, laziness, pride, etc., that take a definite article in many languages.
Hello, yes- I am very familiar with the concept (Sp.= Le gusta el café. It.= Le piace il caffè. Fr.= Le café lui plaît. Gm.= Ihr gefällt (der) Kaffee.), but a year ago when I was first starting to study Greek I was just wondering if there was a distinction. Σ'ευχαριστώ.
How would you say "She likes this coffee"? Της αρέσει αυτός ο καφές?
Also, why does the accusative case doesn't apply here?
Because the subject of a verb is in the nominative case, not accusative.
Who or what appeals to her? The coffee does. So the coffee is in the nominative case.