"I reject you."
Translation:Yo te rechazo.
learnTACO32 and rmcgwn and MartinCo: You do not need the "lo". In the first place, we do not know if is a man or woman. "te" is gender neutral. "lo" is masculine........\\\\\\\We already have the direct object pronoun "te" in front of the verb so there is no need to add another one.////// You may be thinking about INDIRECT object pronouns where you DO need the pronoun even if you already have a full Indirect Object. Example: I gave the book to you. Le dio el libro a Usted. We must have the "le" even though we already have "a Usted", However, we do not need the "a Usted" except for emphasis. "Le dio el libro" would mean "I gave the book to you", but for emphasis (if we want to emphasize that I gave it to YOU and not to somebody else, or if there is confusion as to whom I gave the book, I can add "a Usted". Why do we need to do that? Because "Le dio el libro" can also mean "I gave the book to her" or "I gave the book to him" so we have to add on the end if we need to clarify.
te is only when we're using the informal tú, yes? And would we need a "personal a" before the Ud.? Or is it unnecessary in this case? I'm getting very confused ...
LE = indirect object. You are looking at a DIRECT OBJECT plain vanilla pronoun here. It should be LO or LA or TE. Te rechazo or Lo rechazo (you are rejecting a man) or La rechazo (you are rejecting a woman).
The shown answer is now "los rechazo". This is assuming that "you" is now plural masculine?
Direct/indirect object pronouns do not have an "a". If you want an " a" it would be "a ti te rechazo"
thank you. Do you mean pronouns don't but nouns do - is that my mistake?
Nope you are correct. Pronouns don't have an "a" and nouns do have an "a". Though I think "you" is technically only considered a pronoun in English at least. It has to be a direct/indirect object pronoun to not use an "a"